CompTIA EXAM- SY0-601 Exam Actual Questions and Answers

 

CompTIA EXAM: 

ACTUAL QUESTIONS

The questions for SY0-601 were last updated on June 16, 2023.

QUESTION AND ANSWER

·        A company wants to restrict emailing of PHI documents. The company is implementing a DLP solution. In order to restrict PHI documents, which of the following should be performed FIRST?

A. Retention

B. Governance

C. Classification

D. Change management.

 

In order to restrict emailing of Protected Health Information (PHI) documents, the first step should be:

C. Classification

Classification involves identifying and categorizing data based on its sensitivity and regulatory requirements. In this case, the company needs to identify and classify documents containing PHI as sensitive information. This step is crucial because it provides a foundation for implementing appropriate data protection measures.

By classifying PHI documents, the company can establish clear policies and procedures regarding their handling, storage, and transmission. It allows for better understanding of the data's security requirements and enables the implementation of specific controls to prevent unauthorized disclosure or transmission through email.

Once classification is performed, the company can then proceed with implementing the appropriate DLP (Data Loss Prevention) solution. The DLP solution can be configured to detect and block email transmissions that contain classified PHI documents, ensuring that sensitive information is not sent via email in violation of company policies or regulatory requirements.

The other options mentioned, such as retention, governance, and change management, are also important considerations in overall data protection strategies. However, in the context of restricting emailing of PHI documents, classification is the primary step to identify and categorize the sensitive data appropriately.

 

·     A security analyst is investigating some users who are being redirected to a fake website that resembles www.comptia.org. The following output was found on the naming server of the organization: Which of the following attacks has taken place?

A. Domain reputation

B. Domain hijacking

C. Disassociation

D. DNS poisoning

In the scenario described, the security analyst is investigating users who are being redirected to a fake website resembling www.comptia.org. To determine the output found on the organization's naming server and identify the attack that has taken place, further investigation and analysis would be required. However, based on the information provided, we can make some assumptions:

1. Output on the Naming Server: The naming server is responsible for resolving domain names to IP addresses. If users are being redirected to a fake website resembling www.comptia.org, it suggests that the attacker has somehow tampered with the naming server's records. The output on the naming server may reveal unauthorized changes to the DNS (Domain Name System) records for the comptia.org domain. The actual output would depend on the specific configuration and logs of the organization's naming server.
2. Type of Attack: Based on the description, it appears to be a DNS spoofing or DNS hijacking attack. In this type of attack, the attacker manipulates DNS records to redirect users to a malicious website that closely resembles the legitimate one. By compromising the naming server or intercepting DNS requests, the attacker can provide false IP addresses for the targeted domain, leading users to the fake website.

To confirm these assumptions and gather more specific information about the attack, the security analyst should investigate the organization's network infrastructure, logs, and DNS configurations. They may also need to analyze network traffic, conduct forensic analysis, and consult with the organization's IT and network teams to identify the extent of the attack and take appropriate mitigation measures.

 

•       Which of the following describes the continuous delivery software development methodology? 

                   A. Waterfall 

                   B. Spiral 

                   C. V-shaped 

                   D. Agile

The continuous delivery software development methodology is best described by option:

D. Agile

 

Continuous Delivery is an approach in software development that emphasizes frequent and regular delivery of software updates, features, and bug fixes. It is a part of the broader Agile methodology, which promotes collaboration, flexibility, and iterative development.

Key characteristics of continuous delivery include:

1. Iterative development: Continuous Delivery follows an iterative and incremental development process. Instead of lengthy development cycles, it focuses on delivering small, incremental changes that can be quickly tested and deployed.
2. Continuous integration and testing: Continuous Delivery emphasizes integrating code changes into a shared repository frequently. It also includes running automated tests at various stages of the development process to ensure the quality and functionality of the software.
3. Automated deployment: Continuous Delivery relies on automated deployment processes to make the delivery of software updates fast and reliable. Automated scripts or tools are used to deploy changes to different environments, such as testing, staging, and production, with minimal manual intervention.
4. Continuous feedback and improvement: Continuous Delivery encourages continuous feedback loops and collaboration among team members, stakeholders, and users. Feedback is used to improve the software continuously, enhancing its quality and meeting the evolving requirements and expectations of the users.

In contrast, the other options mentioned:

• Waterfall: Waterfall is a traditional software development methodology where each phase (requirements gathering, design, development, testing, deployment) follows a sequential and linear flow.
• Spiral: The Spiral model is an iterative software development approach that combines elements of the waterfall model with risk analysis and prototyping.
• V-shaped: The V-shaped model is another variation of the waterfall model, where each phase of development is associated with a corresponding testing phase in a V-shaped manner.

While these methodologies have their own merits, they do not specifically capture the principles and practices of continuous delivery, which is best aligned with the Agile methodology.

 

• Which of the following is the BEST example of a cost-effective physical control to enforce a USB removable media restriction policy?

     A. Putting security/antitamper tape over USB ports, logging the port numbers, and regularly inspecting the ports

     B. Implementing a GPO that will restrict access to authorized USB removable media and regularly verifying that it is enforced Most Voted

     C. Placing systems into locked, key-controlled containers with no access to the USB ports

     D. Installing an endpoint agent to detect connectivity of USB and removable media.

 Of the options provided, the BEST example of a cost-effective physical control to enforce a USB removable media restriction policy would be:

C. Placing systems into locked, key-controlled containers with no access to the USB ports.

This option physically restricts access to the USB ports by placing the systems inside locked containers. By doing so, unauthorized individuals are prevented from physically connecting USB devices to the systems. This control is relatively cost-effective as it does not require additional software or complex configurations.

Option A, which involves putting security/antitamper tape over USB ports and regularly inspecting them, can provide some level of control but may not be as effective as option C. It relies on manual inspection and can be more time-consuming and prone to human error.

Option B suggests implementing a Group Policy Object (GPO) to restrict access to authorized USB removable media and verifying its enforcement regularly. While this can be an effective control, it is a software-based control rather than a physical one.

Option D involves installing an endpoint agent to detect USB and removable media connectivity. This approach primarily relies on software and may involve additional costs associated with licensing and maintenance.

In terms of cost-effectiveness and simplicity, option C provides a physical barrier that restricts access to the USB ports directly, making it the most suitable choice for enforcing a USB removable media restriction policy.

 

• ·        A company suspects that some corporate accounts were compromised. The number of suspicious logins from locations not recognized by the users is increasing. Employees who travel need their accounts protected without the risk of blocking legitimate login requests that may be made over new sign-in properties. Which of the following security controls can be implemented?

A. Enforce MFA when an account request reaches a risk threshold.

B. Implement geofencing to only allow access from headquarters.

C. Enforce time-based login requests that align with business hours.

D. Shift the access control scheme to a discretionary access control.

Given the scenario described, the security control that can be implemented to protect employee accounts without blocking legitimate login requests from new sign-in properties is:

A. Enforce MFA (Multi-Factor Authentication) when an account request reaches a risk threshold.

Enforcing MFA when an account request reaches a risk threshold is a proactive approach to enhance security without overly inconveniencing legitimate users. MFA adds an additional layer of authentication beyond just username and password, typically involving something the user knows (password), something they have (e.g., a mobile device), or something they are (biometrics).

In this case, when the number of suspicious logins from unrecognized locations increases, it indicates a potential compromise or unauthorized access attempts. By implementing a risk-based approach, MFA can be triggered when the account request reaches a predefined risk threshold. This means that if suspicious activity is detected, MFA can be enforced to verify the legitimacy of the login attempt, providing an extra layer of protection against unauthorized access.

Options B, C, and D may have limitations or potential drawbacks in this scenario:

Option B suggests implementing geofencing to only allow access from headquarters. While geofencing can be a useful security measure, it may restrict legitimate login requests from employees who travel or work remotely.

Option C suggests enforcing time-based login requests aligned with business hours. While this can be a control measure, it may not address the issue of unrecognized locations and would not protect against potential compromised accounts.

Option D suggests shifting the access control scheme to discretionary access control. Discretionary access control grants permissions based on the discretion of the data owner, which may not directly address the issue of compromised accounts or unrecognized locations.

Enforcing MFA when an account request reaches a risk threshold is a more suitable control in this scenario as it adds an extra layer of security without unnecessarily blocking legitimate login requests.

Top of Form

 

• ·        An organization wants to participate in threat intelligence information sharing with peer groups. Which of the following would MOST likely meet the organization's requirement?

A. Perform OSINT investigations.

B. Subscribe to threat intelligence feeds.

C. Submit RFCs.

D. Implement a TAXII server.

To participate in threat intelligence information sharing with peer groups, the option that would MOST likely meet the organization's requirement is:

D. Implement a TAXII (Trusted Automated Exchange of Indicator Information) server.

A TAXII server is specifically designed for sharing threat intelligence data among organizations. It provides a standardized protocol for exchanging threat intelligence in a machine-readable format. By implementing a TAXII server, the organization can securely share and receive threat intelligence information with its peer groups.

Option A, performing OSINT (Open Source Intelligence) investigations, involves gathering information from publicly available sources. While OSINT can contribute to threat intelligence, it is a more manual and individual effort rather than a mechanism for information sharing with peer groups.

Option B, subscribing to threat intelligence feeds, is a common practice where organizations receive curated threat intelligence from trusted sources. While this can enhance an organization's understanding of threats, it may not involve direct information sharing with peer groups.

Option C, submitting RFCs (Request for Comments), is related to the process of developing standards and protocols but does not specifically address threat intelligence information sharing with peer groups.

In summary, implementing a TAXII server would best support the organization's requirement for participating in threat intelligence information sharing with peer groups. It provides a secure and standardized means of exchanging threat intelligence data among trusted parties.

Bottom of Form

 

• ·        Which of the following is the MOST effective control against zero-day vulnerabilities?

A. Network segmentation

B. Patch management

C. Intrusion prevention system

D. Multiple vulnerability scanners

 

When it comes to protecting against zero-day vulnerabilities, the MOST effective control among the options provided is:

B. Patch management.

Zero-day vulnerabilities refer to security vulnerabilities that are unknown to the software vendor and do not yet have an official patch or fix available. Since these vulnerabilities are unknown, traditional security measures like antivirus or intrusion prevention systems may not be effective in detecting or preventing attacks exploiting them.

Patch management, on the other hand, involves the process of regularly applying software updates and patches released by software vendors. These updates often include fixes for known vulnerabilities, including zero-day vulnerabilities that have been discovered and addressed. By keeping software up to date with the latest patches, organizations can significantly reduce their exposure to zero-day vulnerabilities.

While other options like network segmentation, intrusion prevention systems, and multiple vulnerability scanners play important roles in overall security, they may not specifically address zero-day vulnerabilities as effectively as patch management. Network segmentation helps isolate and contain potential attacks but does not directly protect against specific vulnerabilities. Intrusion prevention systems can help detect and block known attacks but may not have signatures for zero-day exploits. Multiple vulnerability scanners are valuable for identifying known vulnerabilities but cannot protect against unknown zero-day vulnerabilities until patches or mitigations are available.

Given the unpredictable nature of zero-day vulnerabilities, maintaining an effective patch management program is crucial for timely patching and reducing the risk associated with these unknown vulnerabilities.

 

• ·        Which of the following is the GREATEST security concern when outsourcing code development to third-party contractors for an internet-facing application?

A. Intellectual property theft

B. Elevated privileges

C. Unknown backdoor

D. Quality assurance

When outsourcing code development to third-party contractors for an internet-facing application, the GREATEST security concern among the options provided is:

C. Unknown backdoor.

While all the options listed are potential security concerns, an unknown backdoor poses the greatest risk and potential harm to the security of the internet-facing application. An unknown backdoor refers to a hidden method or vulnerability intentionally inserted into the code that allows unauthorized access or control of the system by the party who created it.

Here's why the other options are not the greatest security concern:

A. Intellectual property theft: While intellectual property theft is a concern, it may not have as severe an impact on the security and functionality of the application compared to an unknown backdoor. Intellectual property theft primarily affects the proprietary information and assets of the organization rather than the immediate security of the application.

B. Elevated privileges: Elevated privileges can be a concern if the third-party contractors are given excessive or unnecessary access rights to the application or underlying systems. However, it is a more manageable concern through proper access controls and regular monitoring.

D. Quality assurance: Quality assurance is important for ensuring the functionality, reliability, and security of the code developed by third-party contractors. While the lack of proper quality assurance can lead to issues, it may not pose as immediate and severe a security risk as an unknown backdoor.

Identifying and mitigating the risk of unknown backdoors requires thorough security assessments, code reviews, and ongoing monitoring of the developed code. Organizations should implement rigorous security controls, perform independent code reviews, and maintain a high level of transparency and trust with the third-party contractors to minimize the risk of hidden vulnerabilities and backdoors in the code.

 

• ·        An organization has hired a red team to simulate attacks on its security posture. Which of the following will the blue team do after detecting an IoC?

A. Reimage the impacted workstations.

B. Activate runbooks for incident response.

C. Conduct forensics on the compromised system.

D. Conduct passive reconnaissance to gather information.

 

After detecting an Indicator of Compromise (IoC) during a red team engagement, the blue team's most appropriate action would be:

C. Conduct forensics on the compromised system.

The blue team's role is to defend the organization's security posture and respond to incidents effectively. When an IoC is detected, it indicates a potential compromise or security breach. Conducting forensics on the compromised system is a crucial step in understanding the extent of the compromise, identifying the attack vectors, and gathering evidence for further analysis and investigation.

Forensic analysis helps determine the root cause of the compromise, assess the impact on the system and network, and identify any additional vulnerabilities or indicators that may have been missed. It involves collecting and analyzing logs, system artifacts, network traffic, and other relevant information to reconstruct the attack timeline, identify the attacker's actions, and gather evidence that may be required for potential legal or disciplinary actions.

Option A, reimage the impacted workstations, may be necessary in some cases, especially if the compromise is severe and the system cannot be trusted even after forensic analysis. However, re-imaging alone may result in the loss of valuable evidence and insights into the attack.

Option B, activating runbooks for incident response, is a valid step in incident response, but it would typically come after the forensics analysis to ensure an appropriate and informed response.

Option D, conducting passive reconnaissance to gather information, is not directly related to the detection of an IoC and would be more relevant during the planning or preparation stages of the engagement, rather than in response to an identified IoC.

Therefore, conducting forensics on the compromised system is the most appropriate action for the blue team after detecting an IoC during a red team engagement.

 

• ·        An amusement park is implementing a biometric system that validates customers' fingerprints to ensure they are not sharing tickets. The park's owner values customers above all and would prefer customers' convenience over security. For this reason, which of the following features should the security team prioritize FIRST?

A. Low FAR

B. Low efficacy

C. Low FRR

D. Low CER

Given the owner's preference for customer convenience over security, the security team should prioritize the following feature FIRST:

C. Low FRR (False Rejection Rate).

In a biometric system, the False Rejection Rate (FRR) represents the percentage of legitimate users who are incorrectly rejected or denied access. A low FRR means that the system is more likely to recognize and authenticate valid customers accurately, reducing the inconvenience of false rejections.

By prioritizing a low FRR, the security team can ensure that customers can easily and consistently access the amusement park without facing unnecessary authentication failures. This aligns with the owner's preference for customer convenience.

Option A, Low FAR (False Acceptance Rate), represents the percentage of unauthorized users who are incorrectly granted access. While a low FAR is desirable for security, in this scenario, customer convenience takes precedence over strict security measures.

Option B, Low efficacy, is not a standard biometric term and its meaning is unclear in this context.

Option D, Low CER (Crossover Error Rate), represents the point at which the FRR and FAR are equal. It is a measure of the balance between security and convenience. While a low CER is generally desirable, prioritizing low FRR directly addresses the customer convenience aspect more effectively.

In summary, to prioritize customer convenience over security, the security team should focus on achieving a low FRR to minimize false rejections and ensure a smoother experience for customers using the biometric system.

 

• ·        Which of the following organizations sets frameworks and controls for optimal security configuration on systems?

A. ISO

B. GDPR

C. PCI DSS

D. NIST

The organization that sets frameworks and controls for optimal security configuration on systems is:

D. NIST (National Institute of Standards and Technology).

NIST is an agency of the U.S. Department of Commerce and is responsible for developing and promoting measurement standards, including those related to cybersecurity. NIST provides guidance, standards, and frameworks for various aspects of cybersecurity, including security configuration management.

NIST has developed the NIST Special Publication (SP) 800 series, which includes guidelines and controls for information security management. Specifically, NIST SP 800-53 provides a comprehensive catalog of security and privacy controls for federal information systems and organizations. These controls encompass security configuration management and offer guidelines for optimizing security configurations on systems.

Option A, ISO (International Organization for Standardization), does provide various information security standards, such as ISO 27001, but it does not specifically focus on optimal security configuration for systems.

Option B, GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation), is a European Union regulation that focuses on data protection and privacy for individuals. While GDPR mandates security measures, it primarily deals with personal data protection rather than system security configurations.

Option C, PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard), is a standard developed by major payment card companies to ensure the secure handling of cardholder information. While PCI DSS includes security requirements for systems handling payment card data, it does not focus on overall optimal security configuration for systems.

Therefore, NIST is the organization that primarily sets frameworks and controls for optimal security configuration on systems through its guidelines and standards.

 

• ·        An organization discovered files with proprietary financial data have been deleted. The files have been recovered from backup, but every time the Chief Financial Officer logs in to the file server, the same files are deleted again. No other users are experiencing this issue. Which of the following types of malware is MOST likely causing this behavior?

A. Logic bomb

B. Cryptomalware

C. Spyware

D. Remote access Trojan

Based on the given scenario, the type of malware that is MOST likely causing the behavior of files being deleted every time the Chief Financial Officer (CFO) logs in to the file server is:

A. Logic bomb.

A logic bomb is a type of malicious code that is intentionally triggered by a specific event or condition. It is designed to perform a malicious action at a predetermined time or when a specific trigger event occurs. In this case, the logic bomb is programmed to delete the specific files whenever the CFO logs in to the file server.

The fact that only the CFO is experiencing this issue while no other users are affected suggests that the malware is targeting the CFO specifically. This targeted behavior aligns with the characteristics of a logic bomb, as it is designed to activate its destructive action under specific conditions or with specific user interactions.

Option B, Cryptomalware (or ransomware), is a type of malware that encrypts files and demands a ransom for their decryption. While cryptomalware can cause file deletion if the victim refuses to pay the ransom, the given scenario does not mention any ransom demands or encryption of files.

Option C, Spyware, is malicious software designed to collect information about a user's activities without their consent. While spyware can be used to exfiltrate financial data, it does not typically exhibit the behavior of deleting files upon a specific user login.

Option D, Remote Access Trojan (RAT), is a type of malware that allows unauthorized remote control of an infected system. While a RAT can be used to perform various malicious actions on a compromised system, the behavior of specifically targeting and deleting files upon the CFO's login is not typical of a RAT.

Therefore, given the scenario described, the behavior of files being deleted every time the CFO logs in to the file server suggests the presence of a logic bomb as the most likely cause.

 

• ·        A security analyst has identified malware spreading through the corporate network and has activated the CSIRT. Which of the following should the analyst do NEXT?

A. Review how the malware was introduced to the network.

B. Attempt to quarantine all infected hosts to limit further spread.

C. Create help desk tickets to get infected systems reimaged.

D. Update all endpoint antivirus solutions with the latest updates.

After identifying malware spreading through the corporate network and activating the Computer Security Incident Response Team (CSIRT), the next action the security analyst should take is:

B. Attempt to quarantine all infected hosts to limit further spread.

Quarantining infected hosts is a crucial step in containing the malware and preventing its spread throughout the network. By isolating or disconnecting the infected hosts from the network, the analyst can help prevent further compromise of systems and data.

Here's why the other options are not the immediate next step:

A. Reviewing how the malware was introduced to the network is an important investigative step to understand the entry point and potential vulnerabilities in the network. However, in the context of immediate response, the priority is to contain the malware by quarantining infected hosts first.

C. Creating help desk tickets to get infected systems reimaged is a step that may be necessary to restore the affected systems to a clean state. However, before initiating reimaging, it is important to first quarantine the infected hosts to prevent the malware from spreading further.

D. Updating all endpoint antivirus solutions with the latest updates is an important security measure. However, in the immediate response to the identified malware, quarantining infected hosts takes priority over updating antivirus solutions. Updating antivirus solutions can be performed as part of the broader response plan.

In summary, after activating the CSIRT and identifying malware spreading through the network, the security analyst should prioritize attempting to quarantine all infected hosts to limit further spread. Once the immediate containment is in place, further actions such as investigating the introduction of malware, reimaging infected systems, and updating antivirus solutions can be undertaken as part of the incident response process.

 

• ·        During an incident response, an analyst applied rules to all inbound traffic on the border firewall and implemented ACLs on each critical server. Following an investigation, the company realizes it is still vulnerable because outbound traffic is not restricted, and the adversary is able to maintain a presence in the network. In which of the following stages of the Cyber Kill Chain is the adversary currently operating?

A. Reconnaissance

B. Command and control

C. Actions on objective

D. Exploitation

Based on the given information, the adversary is currently operating in:

B. Command and control.

In the Cyber Kill Chain model, the stages represent different phases of a typical attack. Here's an overview of the stages:

1. Reconnaissance: The attacker gathers information about the target network or system to identify potential vulnerabilities and targets.
2. Weaponization: The attacker creates or acquires the necessary tools or malware to exploit the identified vulnerabilities.
3. Delivery: The attacker delivers the malware or exploit to the target system, often through methods like phishing emails or malicious downloads.
4. Exploitation: The attacker takes advantage of the vulnerabilities to gain unauthorized access to the target system.
5. Installation: The attacker establishes a persistent presence in the compromised system or network.
6. Command and control: The attacker establishes communication channels and maintains control over the compromised systems to carry out further actions and exfiltrate data.
7. Actions on objective: The attacker achieves their intended goals, which can include data exfiltration, sabotage, or other malicious activities.

In the given scenario, the analyst has implemented rules on inbound traffic and applied ACLs on critical servers. These actions primarily focus on restricting inbound traffic, which helps protect against initial attacks and exploitation attempts. However, the company realizes that the adversary is still present in the network, indicating that the attacker has already established a presence and is communicating with their compromised systems.

Therefore, the adversary is currently operating in the "Command and control" stage of the Cyber Kill Chain. They have established communication channels and are maintaining control over the compromised systems to continue their activities or carry out their objectives within the network. To fully mitigate the incident, the company would need to address the issue of unrestricted outbound traffic and disrupt the command and control channels established by the attacker.

 

• ·        A recent security breach exploited software vulnerabilities in the firewall and within the network management solution. Which of the following will MOST likely be used to identify when the breach occurred through each device?

A. SIEM correlation dashboards

B. Firewall syslog event logs

C. Network management solution login audit logs

D. Bandwidth monitors and interface sensors

To identify when the security breach occurred through each device, the most likely tool or source of information to use would be:

B. Firewall syslog event logs.

Firewall syslog event logs record various activities and events related to the firewall's operation, including connection attempts, rule violations, and other security-related events. By analyzing the syslog event logs from the firewall, security analysts can identify any suspicious or anomalous activities that may indicate the occurrence of the breach.

Syslog event logs typically contain timestamps, source IP addresses, destination IP addresses, port numbers, and other relevant information. By examining the log entries around the time of the breach, analysts can determine when the vulnerability was exploited and potentially gain insights into the nature and impact of the attack.

Option A, SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) correlation dashboards, can be used to aggregate and correlate event data from various sources, including firewall logs. However, in this specific case, focusing on the firewall syslog event logs themselves would provide more direct information about the breach.

Option C, Network management solution login audit logs, may be useful for tracking and auditing user login activities within the network management solution. However, it may not directly reveal information about the security breach or the exploitation of software vulnerabilities.

Option D, Bandwidth monitors and interface sensors, are primarily used to monitor network traffic and measure bandwidth utilization. While they can provide insights into overall network activity, they may not specifically identify the occurrence of a security breach or the exploitation of vulnerabilities.

Therefore, in order to identify when the security breach occurred through each device, analyzing the firewall syslog event logs would be the most likely and appropriate approach.

 

• ·        Which of the following is the FIRST environment in which proper, secure coding should be practiced?

A. Stage

B. Development

C. Production

D. Test

The FIRST environment in which proper, secure coding should be practiced is:

B. Development.

Secure coding practices should be implemented and followed from the earliest stages of the software development lifecycle, which includes the development phase. This ensures that security measures and best practices are integrated into the codebase right from the start.

By practicing secure coding during the development phase, developers can proactively address potential security vulnerabilities, adhere to secure coding guidelines, and apply security controls as they write the code. This approach helps prevent security flaws from being introduced into the codebase and reduces the risk of introducing vulnerabilities that could be exploited later in the software's lifecycle.

While security considerations should be carried throughout the entire software development process, including stages like testing, staging, and production, the foundation for secure coding practices should be established in the development environment. This allows for early identification and mitigation of security risks, leading to more robust and secure software.

In summary, the first environment in which proper, secure coding should be practiced is the development environment. By prioritizing secure coding practices from the beginning, organizations can build software with a strong security foundation and reduce the likelihood of introducing vulnerabilities.

 

• ·        A cloud service provider has created an environment where customers can connect existing local networks to the cloud for additional computing resources and block internal HR applications from reaching the cloud. Which of the following cloud models is being used?

A. Public

B. Community

C. Hybrid

D. Private

The cloud model being used in this scenario is:

C. Hybrid.

In a hybrid cloud model, organizations have the ability to connect their existing local networks (on-premises infrastructure) with cloud computing resources. This allows them to extend their computing capabilities, leverage cloud services, and benefit from additional resources and scalability while still maintaining some level of control over their internal systems.

In the given scenario, the cloud service provider has created an environment where customers can connect their local networks to the cloud for additional computing resources. This indicates the utilization of a hybrid cloud model.

Furthermore, the scenario specifies that the internal HR applications are blocked from reaching the cloud. This implies that there are restrictions and controls in place to isolate and protect certain applications or data from being accessed or migrated to the cloud. This segregation of HR applications suggests a combination of on-premises infrastructure and cloud resources, which aligns with the characteristics of a hybrid cloud model.

Option A, Public cloud, refers to a cloud model where computing resources and services are shared among multiple organizations or users over a public network. In a public cloud, the resources are not restricted to a specific organization's network and are accessible by anyone with proper credentials.

Option B, Community cloud, refers to a cloud model where computing resources and services are shared among a specific community or group of organizations that have similar requirements or concerns, such as regulatory compliance or security.

Option D, Private cloud, refers to a cloud model where computing resources and services are dedicated to a single organization. In a private cloud, the organization has exclusive control over the infrastructure and resources, and it may be hosted on-premises or by a third-party provider.

Given the information provided, the scenario best aligns with the characteristics of a hybrid cloud model, where existing local networks are connected to the cloud for additional computing resources while restricting specific internal applications from reaching the cloud.

 

• ·        An organization has developed an application that needs a patch to fix a critical vulnerability. In which of the following environments should the patch be deployed LAST?

A. Test

B. Staging

C. Development

D. Production

The patch for fixing a critical vulnerability should be deployed LAST in the:

D. Production environment.

The production environment is the final stage of the software development lifecycle (SDLC) where the application is deployed and made available to users or customers. It represents the live or operational environment where the application is actively used.

Before deploying the patch to the production environment, it is typically tested in other environments to ensure its effectiveness and compatibility. Let's examine the other options:

A. Test environment: The test environment is used to validate the functionality, performance, and security of the application. It is an environment where different test cases, including vulnerability assessments, are conducted to identify and address issues. Patch deployment is usually done after thorough testing in the test environment, so it should be deployed in the production environment after the test phase.

B. Staging environment: The staging environment is a replica of the production environment that is used for final testing and pre-production activities. It is used to simulate the production environment before deploying changes or updates. Patch deployment should occur after the staging environment to ensure that the patch has been adequately tested and validated.

C. Development environment: The development environment is where the application is built and modified. It is typically used by developers to write, test, and debug code. Patch deployment should occur after the development phase to ensure that the critical vulnerability is fixed and tested before moving it to higher environments.

Since the production environment is the live operational environment where users or customers directly interact with the application, it is crucial to thoroughly test and validate the patch in other environments, such as the test and staging environments, before deploying it in production. This helps minimize any potential disruptions or issues that could arise from applying the patch directly to the live environment without prior testing.

In summary, the patch for fixing a critical vulnerability should be deployed LAST in the production environment, after thorough testing and validation in the other environments.

 

• ·        An organization is building backup server rooms in geographically diverse locations. The Chief Information Security Officer implemented a requirement on the project that states the new hardware cannot be susceptible to the same vulnerabilities in the existing server room. Which of the following should the systems engineer consider?

A. Purchasing hardware from different vendors

B. Migrating workloads to public cloud infrastructure

C. Implementing a robust patch management solution

D. Designing new detective security controls

To ensure that the new backup server rooms in geographically diverse locations are not susceptible to the same vulnerabilities as the existing server room, the systems engineer should consider the following:

C. Implementing a robust patch management solution.

Implementing a robust patch management solution is crucial to address vulnerabilities and keep systems up to date with the latest security patches. By regularly applying patches and updates, the organization can mitigate known vulnerabilities and reduce the risk of exploitation. This applies not only to the existing server room but also to the new backup server rooms.

Considering options A, B, and D:

A. Purchasing hardware from different vendors: While purchasing hardware from different vendors can provide diversity and reduce the risk of common vulnerabilities associated with a single vendor, it alone may not address all potential vulnerabilities. Hardware from different vendors can still be susceptible to similar vulnerabilities if they have common underlying design flaws or use common components. Therefore, this option alone may not fully address the requirement of avoiding the same vulnerabilities.

B. Migrating workloads to public cloud infrastructure: While migrating workloads to public cloud infrastructure can offer various benefits, such as improved security features and automated patch management, it is not explicitly mentioned in the scenario that the organization is considering or planning to migrate to the cloud. Additionally, the scenario specifically mentions building backup server rooms, which suggests a requirement for maintaining control over the backup infrastructure. Therefore, this option may not align with the given context.

D. Designing new detective security controls: While designing new detective security controls can enhance the organization's ability to detect and respond to security incidents, it does not directly address the requirement of avoiding the same vulnerabilities in the new backup server rooms. Detective controls focus on identifying and alerting on potential security breaches, but they do not eliminate vulnerabilities or protect against them. Therefore, this option may not be the most suitable for meeting the stated requirement.

In summary, implementing a robust patch management solution is the most relevant consideration for ensuring that the new backup server rooms are not susceptible to the same vulnerabilities as the existing server room. By keeping systems up to date with security patches, the organization can minimize the risk of known vulnerabilities and enhance the security posture of the new server rooms.

 

• ·        A security analyst is working on a project to implement a solution that monitors network communications and provides alerts when abnormal behavior is detected. Which of the following is the security analyst MOST likely implementing?

A. Vulnerability scans

B. User behavior analysis

C. Security orchestration, automation, and response

D. Threat hunting

The security analyst is MOST likely implementing:

B. User behavior analysis.

User behavior analysis is a security technique that involves monitoring and analyzing the behavior of users within a network or system. It focuses on establishing baselines of normal behavior and identifying deviations or anomalies that may indicate suspicious or malicious activity.

In the given scenario, the security analyst is working on a project to implement a solution that monitors network communications and provides alerts when abnormal behavior is detected. This aligns with the objective of user behavior analysis, which involves analyzing network traffic, user actions, and system events to identify patterns or deviations that may indicate potential security threats.

By implementing user behavior analysis, the security analyst can establish a baseline of normal user behavior and create rules or algorithms to detect and alert on anomalous behavior. This can include unusual network communication patterns, excessive file access, unauthorized access attempts, abnormal resource usage, or other indicators of potential security breaches or insider threats.

Option A, vulnerability scans, focuses on identifying vulnerabilities within the network or system by performing scans or assessments to uncover security weaknesses. While vulnerability scanning is an important security practice, it does not directly address the scenario of monitoring network communications and detecting abnormal behavior.

Option C, security orchestration, automation, and response (SOAR), refers to the integration of security tools, processes, and workflows to streamline incident response and automate security operations. While SOAR can be beneficial in enhancing incident response capabilities, it is not specifically focused on monitoring network communications or detecting abnormal behavior.

Option D, threat hunting, involves proactively searching for advanced threats and indicators of compromise within a network or system. While threat hunting can be a part of a comprehensive security strategy, it is not explicitly mentioned in the scenario that the security analyst is focused on proactive hunting activities.

In summary, based on the provided information, the security analyst is most likely implementing user behavior analysis to monitor network communications, establish baselines, and detect abnormal behavior indicative of potential security threats.

 

• ·        Data exfiltration analysis indicates that an attacker managed to download system configuration notes from a web server. The web-server logs have been deleted, but analysts have determined that the system configuration notes were stored in the database administrator's folder on the web server. Which of the following attacks explains what occurred? (Choose two.)

A. Pass-the-hash

B. Directory traversal

C. SQL injection

D. Privilege escalation

E. Cross-site scripting

F. Request forgery.

The two attacks that could explain the described scenario are:

B. Directory traversal. C. SQL injection.

Explanation:

1. Directory traversal: This attack occurs when an attacker is able to access files or directories outside the intended scope of the web server. In this scenario, the attacker managed to download system configuration notes from the web server by exploiting a directory traversal vulnerability. By manipulating input or utilizing insecure file access methods, the attacker was able to navigate to the database administrator's folder and access the system configuration notes.
2. SQL injection: This attack occurs when an attacker is able to manipulate or inject malicious SQL queries into a vulnerable application's database query. In this scenario, the system configuration notes were stored in the database administrator's folder on the web server. If the web application had a vulnerability that allowed SQL injection, the attacker could have exploited it to retrieve the system configuration notes directly from the database.

It's important to note that the other options are not directly applicable to the described scenario:

A. Pass-the-hash: This attack involves an attacker obtaining hashed credentials from a compromised system and then using those hashes to authenticate or impersonate the user without needing to crack the actual passwords. It does not directly relate to the exfiltration of system configuration notes from a web server.

D. Privilege escalation: This attack involves gaining unauthorized access or privileges to escalate one's permissions within a system. While it may be an important consideration in the overall security of the web server, it does not directly explain the exfiltration of system configuration notes.

E. Cross-site scripting: This attack involves injecting malicious scripts into a website that are executed by a victim's browser. It does not directly relate to the exfiltration of system configuration notes from a web server.

F. Request forgery: This attack involves tricking a user's browser into making a request on their behalf without their knowledge or consent. While it can lead to various security risks, it does not directly explain the exfiltration of system configuration notes.

In summary, based on the description provided, the most likely attacks that explain what occurred are directory traversal and SQL injection.

 

• ·        A junior security analyst is conducting an analysis after passwords were changed on multiple accounts without users' interaction. The SIEM have multiple login entries with the following text: suspicious event - user: scheduledtasks successfully authenticate on AD on abnormal time suspicious event - user: scheduledtasks failed to execute c:\weekly_checkups\amazing-3rdparty-domain-assessment.py suspicious event - user: scheduledtasks failed to execute c:\weekly_checkups\secureyourAD-3rdparty-compliance.sh suspicious event - user: scheduledtasks successfully executed c:\weekly_checkups\amazing-3rdparty-domain-assessment.py Which of the following is the MOST likely attack conducted on the environment? A. Malicious script
•       B. Privilege escalation
•       C. Domain hijacking
•       D. DNS poisoning

Based on the provided information, the MOST likely attack conducted on the environment is:

A. Malicious script.

Explanation:

The suspicious events described in the SIEM logs indicate the presence of a malicious script being executed on the system. Let's break down the events:

1. "suspicious event - user: scheduledtasks successfully authenticate on AD on abnormal time": This event indicates that the user "scheduledtasks" successfully authenticated on the Active Directory (AD) at an abnormal time. This suggests that an unauthorized process or script, impersonating the scheduled task, gained access to the AD.
2. "suspicious event - user: scheduledtasks failed to execute c:\weekly_checkups\amazing-3rdparty-domain-assessment.py": This event indicates that the script "amazing-3rdparty-domain-assessment.py" failed to execute under the user "scheduledtasks." This suggests that the script was present on the system and attempted to run but encountered an issue.
3. "suspicious event - user: scheduledtasks failed to execute c:\weekly_checkups\secureyourAD-3rdparty-compliance.sh": This event indicates that the script "secureyourAD-3rdparty-compliance.sh" failed to execute under the user "scheduledtasks." Similar to the previous event, this suggests the presence of another script attempting to execute but encountering an issue.
4. "suspicious event - user: scheduledtasks successfully executed c:\weekly_checkups\amazing-3rdparty-domain-assessment.py": This event indicates that the script "amazing-3rdparty-domain-assessment.py" was successfully executed under the user "scheduledtasks." This confirms the presence and successful execution of a script on the system.

Based on these events, it is highly likely that a malicious script was introduced into the system, possibly through a compromised process or via a vulnerability in the environment. The script's purpose may be related to assessing or compromising the domain or AD environment.

Options B, C, and D are less likely based on the provided information:

B. Privilege escalation: While the attack may involve escalating privileges to access the AD and execute scripts, the provided events do not directly indicate a privilege escalation attack. They primarily focus on the execution of suspicious scripts under the "scheduledtasks" user.

C. Domain hijacking: There is no specific indication of domain hijacking in the given events. The events primarily suggest the execution of scripts and potential compromise of the AD environment.

D. DNS poisoning: There is no mention of DNS poisoning in the events. The focus is on the execution of suspicious scripts and potential compromise within the system.

In summary, based on the information provided, the most likely attack conducted on the environment is the execution of a malicious script, as indicated by the suspicious events in the SIEM logs.

 

• ·        A customer service representative reported an unusual text message that was sent to the help desk. The message contained an unrecognized invoice number with a large balance due and a link to click for more details. Which of the following BEST describes this technique?

A. Vishing

B. Whaling

C. Phishing

D. Smishing.

The BEST description for the technique described in the scenario is:

C. Phishing.

Explanation:

Phishing is a cyber attack technique where attackers attempt to deceive individuals into revealing sensitive information, such as login credentials, financial details, or personal information, by masquerading as a trustworthy entity. In this scenario, the customer service representative received an unusual text message containing an unrecognized invoice number with a large balance due and a link to click for more details. This is a classic example of a phishing attempt.

Here's a breakdown of the other options:

A. Vishing: Vishing is a form of phishing that involves using voice or phone-based communication to trick individuals into revealing sensitive information or taking certain actions. It is not applicable to the scenario as the attack described is through a text message.

B. Whaling: Whaling is a type of phishing attack that targets high-profile individuals, such as executives or senior management, to gain access to sensitive information or conduct fraud. It typically involves personalized and tailored attacks. The scenario does not mention targeting a specific high-profile individual, so whaling is not the best description.

D. Smishing: Smishing is a type of phishing attack conducted through SMS or text messages. It involves tricking individuals into providing sensitive information or clicking on malicious links via text messages. The scenario aligns with smishing as the customer service representative received an unusual text message with a link. However, the term "smishing" is not as widely used as "phishing" to describe this type of attack, hence the answer "C. Phishing" is a better fit.

In summary, based on the information provided, the technique described in the scenario is best described as a phishing attempt.

• ·        Which of the following actions would be recommended to improve an incident response process?

A. Train the team to identify the difference between events and incidents.

B. Modify access so the IT team has full access to the compromised assets.

C. Contact the authorities if a cybercrime is suspected.

D. Restrict communication surrounding the response to the IT team.

The recommended action to improve an incident response process is:

A. Train the team to identify the difference between events and incidents.

Explanation:

Improving the incident response process involves enhancing the capabilities and knowledge of the incident response team. Training the team to identify the difference between events and incidents is crucial in effective incident response. Understanding the distinction between events (normal and expected occurrences) and incidents (security breaches or anomalies) allows the team to prioritize and respond appropriately to security incidents. By having a clear understanding of what constitutes an incident, the team can quickly identify and focus their efforts on addressing security breaches and minimizing the impact.

The other options are not recommended for improving the incident response process:

B. Modifying access so the IT team has full access to the compromised assets: Modifying access to grant the IT team full access to compromised assets is not recommended without proper justification and adherence to the principle of least privilege. Access should be carefully managed and granted based on the specific needs and responsibilities of the incident response team. Providing full access to compromised assets without proper controls and oversight could potentially exacerbate the situation or lead to further damage.

C. Contacting the authorities if a cybercrime is suspected: Contacting the authorities, such as law enforcement, may be necessary in some cases, particularly if a cybercrime is suspected. However, this is a decision that should be made based on the severity and nature of the incident, as well as legal and organizational considerations. While involving the authorities can be an important step in certain situations, it is not a general action that would universally improve the incident response process.

D. Restricting communication surrounding the response to the IT team: Restricting communication surrounding the response to the IT team only can hinder the effectiveness of the incident response process. Incident response often requires collaboration and communication among various stakeholders, including IT teams, management, legal, HR, and other relevant parties. Open and effective communication is essential for timely information sharing, decision-making, and coordination during incident response. Restricting communication to only the IT team may limit the ability to gather crucial information, obtain necessary approvals, or involve appropriate personnel for incident resolution.

In summary, training the team to identify the difference between events and incidents is the recommended action to improve an incident response process. This enables the team to quickly and accurately identify security incidents, prioritize their response efforts, and effectively address the identified incidents.

 

• ·        A cybersecurity administrator needs to implement a Layer 7 security control on a network and block potential attacks. Which of the following can block an attack at Layer 7? (Choose two.)

A. HIDS

B. NIPS

C. HSM

D. WAF

E. NAC

F. NIDS

The two options that can block an attack at Layer 7 are:

D. WAF (Web Application Firewall) F. NIDS (Network Intrusion Detection System)

Explanation:

A. HIDS (Host-based Intrusion Detection System) is a security control that monitors and analyzes activities on individual hosts or endpoints. While it can detect and alert on certain types of attacks, it does not specifically block attacks at Layer 7.

B. NIPS (Network Intrusion Prevention System) is a network security control that examines network traffic and actively blocks or prevents malicious activities. However, it typically operates at lower network layers (Layers 3 and 4) and may not specifically block attacks at Layer 7.

C. HSM (Hardware Security Module) is a physical device used for cryptographic operations and key management. It is not directly involved in blocking attacks at Layer 7.

D. WAF (Web Application Firewall) is a security control specifically designed to protect web applications from various attacks, including those at Layer 7. It can inspect and filter HTTP/HTTPS traffic, identify and block malicious requests, and provide protection against common web application vulnerabilities.

E. NAC (Network Access Control) is a security framework that enforces policies to control access to network resources. While it can provide authentication and authorization mechanisms, it does not directly block attacks at Layer 7.

F. NIDS (Network Intrusion Detection System) is a network security control that monitors network traffic for suspicious or malicious activities. While it does not block attacks directly, it can detect and alert on potential attacks, including those targeting Layer 7.

In summary, the two options that can block attacks at Layer 7 are a WAF (Web Application Firewall) and a NIDS (Network Intrusion Detection System). These security controls are specifically designed to protect against attacks targeting web applications and monitor network traffic for suspicious activities at Layer7.

 

• ·        A business operations manager is concerned that a PC that is critical to business operations will have a costly hardware failure soon. The manager is looking for options to continue business operations without incurring large costs. Which of the following would mitigate the manager's concerns?

A. Implement a full system upgrade.

B. Perform a physical-to-virtual migration.

C. Install uninterruptible power supplies.

D. Purchase cybersecurity insurance.

To mitigate the business operations manager's concerns about a potential hardware failure of a critical PC without incurring large costs, the following option would be most suitable:

C. Install uninterruptible power supplies (UPS).

Explanation:

A UPS is a device that provides backup power to critical equipment in the event of a power outage or fluctuation. By installing a UPS for the critical PC, the business can ensure that the PC remains powered and operational even during power interruptions, thus mitigating the risk of sudden hardware failure due to power-related issues. This solution provides a cost-effective way to maintain business continuity and minimize downtime without the need for a full system upgrade or expensive physical-to-virtual migration.

Option A, implementing a full system upgrade, may address potential hardware issues but could be costly and may not be necessary if the only concern is the imminent hardware failure of the PC in question.

Option B, performing a physical-to-virtual migration, involves converting a physical server or PC to a virtual machine, which may require additional hardware and software resources. While virtualization can provide flexibility and redundancy, it may not be the most cost-effective solution for mitigating a single PC's hardware failure.

Option D, purchasing cybersecurity insurance, is not directly related to addressing the concerns of a hardware failure. Cybersecurity insurance primarily covers financial losses and damages resulting from cyber incidents, such as data breaches or cyber attacks, rather than hardware failures.

Therefore, installing uninterruptible power supplies (UPS) is the most suitable option to mitigate the business operations manager's concerns about a potential hardware failure of the critical PC while minimizing costs and ensuring business continuity.

 

• ·        An organization has activated an incident response plan due to a malware outbreak on its network. The organization has brought in a forensics team that has identified an internet-facing Windows server as the likely point of initial compromise. The malware family that was detected is known to be distributed by manually logging on to servers and running the malicious code. Which of the following actions would be BEST to prevent reinfection from the infection vector?

A. Prevent connections over TFTP from the internal network.

B. Create a firewall rule that blocks a 22 from the internet to the server.

C. Disable file sharing over port 445 to the server.

D. Block port 3389 inbound from untrusted networks.

To prevent reinfection from the infection vector of manually logging on to servers and running the malicious code, the BEST action would be:

D. Block port 3389 inbound from untrusted networks.

Explanation:

Port 3389 is the default port used for Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP), which allows remote access to Windows servers. By blocking inbound connections on port 3389 from untrusted networks, the organization can prevent unauthorized access to the internet-facing Windows server. This helps mitigate the risk of attackers logging in to the server and running the malicious code manually, reducing the chance of reinfection.

Option A, preventing connections over TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol) from the internal network, does not directly address the infection vector of manually logging on to servers and running the malicious code. TFTP is typically used for lightweight file transfers and is unlikely to be the primary method of compromise in this scenario.

Option B, creating a firewall rule that blocks port 22 (SSH) from the internet to the server, is not directly related to the Windows server's infection vector. Port 22 is commonly used for secure remote administration on Linux/Unix systems, and blocking it may not be effective against the specific attack described.

Option C, disabling file sharing over port 445 to the server, is a good security practice but may not directly address the infection vector described. Port 445 is commonly associated with SMB (Server Message Block) file sharing on Windows systems. While disabling it can help protect against certain types of attacks, it may not fully prevent manual logins and execution of malicious code.

Therefore, blocking port 3389 inbound from untrusted networks is the most appropriate and effective action to prevent reinfection from the infection vector of manually logging on to servers and running the malicious code. By doing so, the organization limits remote access to the server and reduces the attack surface for potential compromises.

 

• ·        Which of the following uses SAML for authentication?

A. TOTP

B. Federation

C. Kerberos

D. HOTP

B. Federation

Explanation:

SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language) is a standard protocol used for exchanging authentication and authorization data between identity providers (IdPs) and service providers (SPs). It enables single sign-on (SSO) functionality, allowing users to authenticate once with an identity provider and then access multiple service providers without the need to reauthenticate.

Federation, which is the process of establishing trust and sharing identity information between different organizations or domains, often utilizes SAML for authentication. In a federation scenario, the identity provider uses SAML assertions to provide the necessary authentication information to the service provider.

Option A, TOTP (Time-Based One-Time Password), is a method of generating temporary passcodes typically used in two-factor authentication (2FA) systems. TOTP does not use SAML for authentication.

Option C, Kerberos, is a network authentication protocol that uses tickets to authenticate users and provide secure communication over a non-secure network. While Kerberos is widely used for authentication in various environments, it does not rely on SAML.

Option D, HOTP (HMAC-Based One-Time Password), is another method of generating one-time passwords typically used in two-factor authentication systems. Like TOTP, HOTP does not utilize SAML for authentication.

• ·        The SOC for a large MSSP is meeting to discuss the lessons learned from a recent incident that took much too long to resolve. This type of incident has become more common in recent weeks and is consuming large amounts of the analysts' time due to manual tasks being performed. Which of the following solutions should the SOC consider to BEST improve its response time?  

A. Configure a NIDS appliance using a Switched Port Analyzer.

B. Collect OSINT and catalog the artifacts in a central repository.

C. Implement a SOAR with customizable playbooks.

D. Install a SIEM with community-driven threat intelligence.

C. Implement a SOAR with customizable playbooks.

Explanation:

In this scenario, the SOC is facing incidents that are taking too long to resolve, primarily due to the manual tasks being performed by the analysts. To improve response time and efficiency, the SOC should consider implementing a Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response (SOAR) solution with customizable playbooks.

A SOAR platform integrates security technologies, data sources, and processes to automate and orchestrate incident response tasks. It helps streamline and accelerate incident response by automating routine, repetitive tasks, and providing a structured approach to incident handling. Customizable playbooks within a SOAR platform allow the SOC to define and automate specific response actions tailored to their environment and incident types.

Option A, configuring a Network Intrusion Detection System (NIDS) appliance using a Switched Port Analyzer (SPAN), is a network monitoring technique but does not directly address the problem of manual tasks and improving response time.

Option B, collecting Open-Source Intelligence (OSINT) and cataloging artifacts in a central repository, is valuable for threat intelligence and information gathering but may not directly address the issue of resolving incidents more quickly.

Option D, installing a Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system with community-driven threat intelligence, can enhance visibility and detection capabilities but may not specifically address the need for automation and improving response time.

Therefore, the best solution to improve response time in this scenario is to implement a SOAR platform with customizable playbooks, which can automate tasks and provide a more efficient and structured incident response process.

Therefore, the correct answer is B. Federation, which leverages SAML for authentication purposes.

 

• ·        Business partners are working on a security mechanism to validate transactions securely. The requirement is for one company to be responsible for deploying a trusted solution that will register and issue artifacts used to sign, encrypt, and decrypt transaction files. Which of the following is the BEST solution to adopt?

A. PKI

B. Blockchain

C. SAML

D. OAuth

A. PKI (Public Key Infrastructure)

Explanation:

In the given scenario, the requirement is to deploy a trusted solution for registering and issuing artifacts used for signing, encrypting, and decrypting transaction files. The best solution to meet this requirement is a PKI (Public Key Infrastructure).

PKI is a security mechanism that uses asymmetric encryption to establish trust, authenticate users, and secure communications. It involves the use of digital certificates, which are issued by a trusted Certificate Authority (CA), to bind cryptographic keys to entities such as individuals, organizations, or devices. These certificates are used for various purposes, including digital signatures, encryption, and authentication.

In the context of validating transactions securely, PKI can be used to ensure the integrity, authenticity, and confidentiality of the transaction files. The company responsible for deploying the trusted solution would set up a PKI infrastructure, issue digital certificates to the business partners involved, and use the private keys associated with these certificates to sign, encrypt, and decrypt the transaction files.

Option B, Blockchain, is a distributed and decentralized ledger technology that is mainly used for recording and verifying transactions in a secure and transparent manner. While it can provide certain security benefits, it may not be the most suitable solution for the specific requirements mentioned in the scenario.

Option C, SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language), is a standard protocol used for exchanging authentication and authorization data between identity providers and service providers. SAML is primarily used for web-based SSO (Single Sign-On) scenarios and may not directly address the need for signing, encrypting, and decrypting transaction files.

Option D, OAuth, is an authorization framework used for granting access to resources on behalf of a user. While it plays a role in secure authentication and authorization, it is not specifically designed for the cryptographic operations required to sign, encrypt, and decrypt transaction files.

Therefore, the best solution to adopt in this scenario is PKI, as it provides the necessary mechanisms for secure registration and issuance of artifacts used for transaction validation and cryptographic operations.

 

• ·        A security analyst has been asked by the Chief Information Security Officer to: ✑ develop a secure method of providing centralized management of infrastructure ✑ reduce the need to constantly replace aging end user machines ✑ provide a consistent user desktop experience Which of the following BEST meets these requirements?

A. BYOD

B. Mobile device management

C. VDI

D. Containerization

C. VDI (Virtual Desktop Infrastructure)

Explanation:

VDI (Virtual Desktop Infrastructure) is the best option that meets the given requirements of providing centralized management of infrastructure, reducing the need to constantly replace aging end user machines, and providing a consistent user desktop experience.

VDI allows for the creation and management of virtual desktop environments that run on centralized servers. Each user is provided with a virtual desktop instance that is hosted and managed on these servers, rather than having a physical desktop machine. The virtual desktops can be accessed from various devices, including thin clients, laptops, or even personal devices (BYOD) in some cases.

By implementing VDI, the organization can achieve centralized management of the infrastructure. The virtual desktops can be easily provisioned, patched, and updated from a central server, reducing the administrative overhead of managing individual physical machines.

VDI also helps in reducing the need to constantly replace aging end user machines. Instead of replacing the entire physical machine, the organization can focus on maintaining and upgrading the centralized server infrastructure that hosts the virtual desktops. This allows for longer lifecycles of end-user devices, as the processing and storage requirements are offloaded to the server infrastructure.

Furthermore, VDI provides a consistent user desktop experience. Users can access their virtual desktops from any device with an internet connection, and their desktop environment remains the same regardless of the device they use. This ensures a consistent user experience across different devices and locations.

Option A, BYOD (Bring Your Own Device), refers to a policy that allows employees to use their personal devices for work purposes. While it can be implemented alongside VDI, BYOD alone does not provide the centralized management and consistent user desktop experience that VDI offers.

Option B, Mobile device management (MDM), focuses on managing and securing mobile devices such as smartphones and tablets. While MDM can be part of the overall infrastructure management strategy, it does not address the requirement for centralized management of infrastructure or providing a consistent user desktop experience.

Option D, Containerization, involves isolating applications and their dependencies into containers to achieve portability and flexibility. While containerization has its benefits, it may not directly address the requirements of centralized management, reducing the need for aging end-user machines, and providing a consistent user desktop experience as effectively as VDI.

Therefore, VDI is the best option that meets all the specified requirements.

 

• ·        Which of the following terms describes a broad range of information that is sensitive to a specific organization?

A. Public

B. Top secret

C. Proprietary

D. Open-source

C. Proprietary

Proprietary refers to information or data that is privately owned by a specific organization or individual. It encompasses a broad range of sensitive information that is unique to the organization and not intended for public disclosure or use by competitors or unauthorized parties. This can include trade secrets, intellectual property, financial data, customer lists, strategic plans, and other confidential information that gives the organization a competitive advantage. The protection and control of proprietary information are crucial for maintaining the organization's confidentiality and preventing unauthorized access or disclosure.

 

• ·        A Chief Security Officer (CSO) is concerned that cloud-based services are not adequately protected from advanced threats and malware. The CSO believes there is a high risk that a data breach could occur in the near future due to the lack of detective and preventive controls. Which of the following should be implemented to BEST address the CSO's concerns? (Choose two.)

A. A WAF

B. A CASB

C. An NG-SWG

D. Segmentation

E. Encryption

F. Containerization

A. A WAF (Web Application Firewall): A WAF can help protect cloud-based services by filtering and monitoring HTTP and HTTPS traffic between web applications and the internet. It can detect and block malicious traffic, including advanced threats and malware, thus enhancing the security posture of the cloud-based services.

B. A CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker): A CASB provides security controls and visibility for cloud-based services. It acts as a security intermediary between users and cloud service providers, allowing organizations to enforce security policies, monitor activity, and detect and prevent data breaches in cloud environments. CASBs can help address the CSO's concerns by providing additional security controls and threat detection capabilities for cloud-based services.

Both the WAF and CASB solutions contribute to enhancing the security of cloud-based services by providing additional layers of protection, visibility, and control over the traffic and data flowing to and from the cloud environment.

 

• ·        An organization is planning to roll out a new mobile device policy and issue each employee a new laptop. These laptops would access the users' corporate operating system remotely and allow them to use the laptops for purposes outside of their job roles. Which of the following deployment models is being utilized?

A. MDM and application management

B. BYOD and containers

C. COPE and VDI

D. CYOD and VMs

C. COPE and VDI

COPE (Corporate-Owned, Personally Enabled) refers to a deployment model where the organization provides employees with corporate-owned devices that can be used for personal purposes as well. In this scenario, the organization is planning to issue each employee a new laptop, which indicates a corporate-owned device.

VDI (Virtual Desktop Infrastructure) is a technology that allows users to access their corporate operating systems and applications remotely, typically through virtual desktop sessions. It provides a centralized and controlled environment where users can access their corporate resources from various devices, including laptops.

Combining COPE and VDI, the organization plans to issue corporate-owned laptops to employees, which can be used for both work-related and personal purposes. The laptops will access the users' corporate operating system remotely through a VDI solution, allowing them to utilize the corporate environment while working outside of their job roles. This deployment model provides flexibility and convenience to employees while maintaining control and security over the corporate assets.

 

• ·        Certain users are reporting their accounts are being used to send unauthorized emails and conduct suspicious activities. After further investigation, a security analyst notices the following: ✑ All users share workstations throughout the day. ✑ Endpoint protection was disabled on several workstations throughout the network. ✑ Travel times on logins from the affected users are impossible. ✑ Sensitive data is being uploaded to external sites. All user account passwords were forced to be reset and the issue continued. Which of the following attacks is being used to compromise the user accounts?

A. Brute-force

B. Keylogger

C. Dictionary

D. Rainbow

Based on the given information, the attack that is likely being used to compromise the user accounts is:

B. Keylogger

Keyloggers are malicious software or hardware that record keystrokes entered by users on their compromised systems. In this scenario, several indicators point to the presence of a keylogger:

1. All users share workstations throughout the day: Keyloggers can capture keystrokes entered by different users on shared workstations, allowing the attacker to collect login credentials.
2. Endpoint protection disabled on several workstations: The presence of a keylogger may go undetected if the endpoint protection software is disabled or not functioning properly.
3. Impossible travel times on logins: Keyloggers can capture login credentials, allowing the attacker to remotely access user accounts from different locations without being physically present.
4. Sensitive data uploaded to external sites: Keyloggers can capture sensitive information, such as login credentials and data, which can then be uploaded to external sites by the attacker.

Resetting user account passwords alone may not resolve the issue, as the keylogger could continue to capture the new passwords. Additional measures, such as removing the keylogger from the affected systems and implementing stronger security controls, should be taken to fully mitigate the attack.

 

• ·        A security forensics analyst is examining a virtual server. The analyst wants to preserve the present state of the virtual server, including memory contents. Which of the following backup types should be used?

A. Snapshot

B. Differential

C. Cloud

D. Full

E. Incremental

To preserve the present state of the virtual server, including memory contents, the forensics analyst should use:

A. Snapshot

A snapshot backup captures the entire state of a virtual server at a specific point in time, including the contents of the server's memory. It allows for the creation of a point-in-time copy of the server, which can be used for forensic analysis or restoring the server to that specific state if needed.

Differential, cloud, full, and incremental backups do not typically include the memory contents of the server. Differential backups only capture changes made since the last full backup, cloud backups store data offsite in a cloud-based service, full backups capture all data, and incremental backups only capture changes made since the last backup.

Therefore, the best choice for preserving the present state of the virtual server, including memory contents, is a snapshot backup.

 

• ·        After returning from a conference, a user's laptop has been operating slower than normal and overheating, and the fans have been running constantly. During the diagnosis process, an unknown piece of hardware is found connected to the laptop's motherboard. Which of the following attack vectors was exploited to install the hardware?

A. Removable media

B. Spear phishing

C. Supply chain

D. Direct access

The attack vector that was likely exploited to install the unknown hardware on the laptop is:

C. Supply chain

In a supply chain attack, adversaries target the process of acquiring and integrating hardware or software components into a system. They may compromise the supply chain by tampering with the hardware or software at some point during the manufacturing, distribution, or installation process.

In this scenario, the user's laptop was compromised after returning from a conference, suggesting that the attack took place during the supply chain process. The unknown hardware found connected to the laptop's motherboard indicates that an unauthorized component was inserted into the system, likely as part of a supply chain attack.

Removable media, such as USB drives, is a common attack vector for spreading malware, but it does not explain the presence of the unknown hardware connected to the motherboard. Spear phishing involves targeted email attacks to trick users into revealing sensitive information or downloading malicious files, but it does not directly relate to the installation of physical hardware. Direct access refers to physical access to a system, but it does not specifically address the supply chain aspect of the attack.

Therefore, the most relevant attack vector in this scenario is the supply chain attack.

 

• ·        After a recent security breach, a security analyst reports that several administrative usernames and passwords are being sent via cleartext across the network to access network devices over port 23. Which of the following should be implemented so all credentials sent over the network are encrypted when remotely accessing and configuring network devices?

A. SSH

B. SNMPv3

C. SFTP

D. Telnet E. FTP

To encrypt credentials sent over the network when remotely accessing and configuring network devices, the organization should implement:

A. SSH (Secure Shell)

SSH is a secure protocol used for remote administration of network devices. It provides encryption and secure authentication mechanisms, ensuring that credentials and data transmitted over the network are encrypted and protected from eavesdropping and unauthorized access. SSH is commonly used to replace Telnet (option D), which sends data in cleartext and is inherently insecure.

SNMPv3 (option B) is a secure version of the Simple Network Management Protocol, but it is primarily used for network monitoring and management rather than remote device configuration.

SFTP (option C) is a secure file transfer protocol that provides secure file transfers but is not specifically designed for remote device configuration.

FTP (option E) is an insecure file transfer protocol that sends data in cleartext and should not be used for transmitting sensitive information or credentials.

Therefore, the most appropriate choice for encrypting credentials sent over the network when remotely accessing and configuring network devices is SSH (option A).

 

• ·        Which of the following provides a calculated value for known vulnerabilities so organizations can prioritize mitigation steps?

A. CVSS

B. SIEM

C. SOAR

D. CVE

The correct answer is A. CVSS (Common Vulnerability Scoring System).

CVSS is a standardized system that provides a numerical score to assess the severity and impact of known vulnerabilities. It calculates a base score, which represents the intrinsic qualities of the vulnerability, and assigns additional metrics, such as temporal and environmental factors, to generate an overall score. This scoring system helps organizations prioritize their mitigation efforts by focusing on vulnerabilities with higher scores, indicating a greater potential risk.

SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) (option B) is a security solution that collects and analyzes security events and logs from various sources to detect and respond to security incidents. While SIEM can provide valuable insights into security events, it does not directly provide calculated values for known vulnerabilities.

SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) (option C) refers to a set of technologies and processes used to automate security operations and response tasks. It streamlines incident response workflows but does not specifically provide calculated values for known vulnerabilities.

CVE (Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures) (option D) is a public database that provides unique identifiers for publicly known vulnerabilities. While CVE identifiers are used to track vulnerabilities, they do not provide calculated values or prioritize mitigation steps.

Therefore, the most appropriate option for providing a calculated value for known vulnerabilities to prioritize mitigation steps is A. CVSS (Common Vulnerability Scoring System).

 

• ·        Several universities are participating in a collaborative research project and need to share compute and storage resources. Which of the following cloud deployment strategies would BEST meet this need?

A. Community

B. Private

C. Public

D. Hybrid

The correct answer is A. Community.

A community cloud deployment strategy would best meet the needs of the universities participating in the collaborative research project. A community cloud is a type of cloud deployment model where computing resources are shared among organizations with similar interests, requirements, or goals. In this case, the universities can pool their compute and storage resources in a community cloud, allowing them to collaborate and share resources for their research projects.

Private cloud (option B) refers to a cloud infrastructure that is dedicated to a single organization. It may not be suitable for sharing resources among multiple universities in a collaborative project.

Public cloud (option C) involves using cloud services provided by a third-party vendor, and the resources are shared among multiple organizations and users. While public cloud can offer scalability and cost-efficiency, it may not provide the level of collaboration and resource sharing required for the universities' research project.

Hybrid cloud (option D) combines the use of private and public cloud infrastructure, allowing organizations to leverage the benefits of both. While a hybrid cloud environment could potentially meet the universities' needs, a community cloud would be a more specific and appropriate solution for their collaborative research project.

Therefore, option A. Community is the best cloud deployment strategy for the universities to share compute and storage resources in their collaborative research project.

 

• ·        A forensic analyst needs to prove that data has not been tampered with since it was collected. Which of the following methods will the analyst MOST likely use?

A. Look for tampering on the evidence collection bag.

B. Encrypt the collected data using asymmetric encryption.

C. Ensure proper procedures for chain of custody are being followed.

D. Calculate the checksum using a hashing algorithm.

The correct answer is D. Calculate the checksum using a hashing algorithm.

To prove that data has not been tampered with since it was collected, a forensic analyst would most likely use a hashing algorithm to calculate a checksum or hash value of the data. A hashing algorithm takes the input data and produces a fixed-length sequence of characters, which is unique to the input data. Even a small change in the input data would result in a significantly different hash value.

By calculating the checksum or hash value of the collected data at the time of collection and then comparing it later during analysis, the forensic analyst can verify that the data has remained unchanged. If the checksums match, it provides strong evidence that the data has not been tampered with. If the checksums do not match, it indicates that the data may have been modified or tampered with.

Options A, B, and C are not directly related to proving that data has not been tampered with. While ensuring proper procedures for the chain of custody (option C) is important in maintaining the integrity of evidence, it does not directly address the question of proving that the data itself has not been tampered with. Similarly, encrypting the collected data (option B) and looking for tampering on the evidence collection bag (option A) are measures that can help protect the confidentiality and integrity of the data but do not specifically prove that the data has not been tampered with.

Therefore, option D. Calculate the checksum using a hashing algorithm is the method that the forensic analyst would most likely use to prove that the data has not been tampered with since it was collected.

 

• ·        Multiple business accounts were compromised a few days after a public website had its credentials database leaked on the Internet. No business emails were identified in the breach, but the security team thinks that the list of passwords exposed was later used to compromise business accounts. Which of the following would mitigate the issue?

A. Complexity requirements

B. Password history

C. Acceptable use policy

D. Shared accounts

The correct answer is A. Complexity requirements.

To mitigate the issue of compromised business accounts, implementing complexity requirements for passwords is an important measure. Complexity requirements typically involve setting rules for password composition, such as requiring a minimum length, a mix of uppercase and lowercase letters, numbers, and special characters. By enforcing complexity requirements, it becomes more difficult for attackers to guess or crack passwords based on leaked credentials.

Option B, password history, refers to preventing users from reusing their previous passwords. While it is a good security practice, it may not directly address the issue of compromised accounts resulting from leaked credentials.

Option C, an acceptable use policy, sets guidelines for how employees should use company resources and systems. While it is an important aspect of security, an acceptable use policy alone may not be sufficient to mitigate the specific issue of compromised accounts due to leaked credentials.

Option D, shared accounts, should generally be avoided as they can increase the risk of unauthorized access. However, it may not directly address the issue of compromised accounts resulting from leaked credentials.

Therefore, in the given scenario, implementing complexity requirements (option A) for passwords would be the most effective measure to mitigate the issue of compromised business accounts.

• ·        A security analyst wants to fingerprint a web server. Which of the following tools will the security analyst MOST likely use to accomplish this task?

A. nmap -pl-65535 192.168.0.10

B. dig 192.168.0.10

C. curl --head http://192.168.0.10

D. ping 192.168.0.10

The correct answer is C. curl --head http://192.168.0.10.

The "curl --head" command is commonly used to send an HTTP HEAD request to a web server and retrieve only the headers of the server's response. By specifying the web server's IP address or hostname (in this case, http://192.168.0.10), the security analyst can gather information about the server's response headers, such as the server software and version being used. This information can help in identifying the type and version of the web server.

Option A, "nmap -pl-65535 192.168.0.10," is a command using the nmap tool to perform a comprehensive port scan on the specified IP address. While it can provide information about open ports on the server, it may not directly reveal details about the web server software itself.

Option B, "dig 192.168.0.10," is a command used for DNS-related queries, such as retrieving the IP address associated with a domain name or querying DNS records. It does not directly provide information about the web server fingerprint.

Option D, "ping 192.168.0.10," is a command used to check the reachability of an IP address and measure the round-trip time. It does not provide any information related to web server fingerprinting.

Therefore, the most appropriate tool for fingerprinting a web server in this scenario is option C, "curl --head http://192.168.0.10."

 

• ·        A penetration tester was able to compromise an internal server and is now trying to pivot the current session in a network lateral movement. Which of the following tools, if available on the server, will provide the MOST useful information for the next assessment step?

A. Autopsy

B. Cuckoo

C. Memdump

D. Nmap

The correct answer is D. Nmap.

Nmap is a versatile network scanning tool that can provide valuable information for a penetration tester during lateral movement. It can help identify other hosts on the network, open ports, running services, and potentially vulnerable systems that can be targeted for further exploitation.

Option A, Autopsy, is a digital forensics tool used for analyzing disk images and investigating incidents. While it can be useful in a post-incident analysis, it may not directly assist the penetration tester in pivoting the current session or conducting further assessments.

Option B, Cuckoo, is a sandbox analysis tool used for analyzing suspicious files and URLs. It focuses on malware analysis rather than network scanning or lateral movement.

Option C, Memdump, is a tool used to capture the memory contents of a running system. While memory analysis can provide valuable insights for a penetration tester, it is typically used for post-exploitation activities rather than during the initial pivot in lateral movement.

Therefore, in this scenario, the most useful tool for the penetration tester to gather information for the next assessment step would be option D, Nmap.

 

• ·        Field workers in an organization are issued mobile phones on a daily basis. All the work is performed within one city, and the mobile phones are not used for any purpose other than work. The organization does not want these phones used for personal purposes. The organization would like to issue the phones to workers as permanent devices so the phones do not need to be reissued every day. Given the conditions described, which of the following technologies would BEST meet these requirements?

A. Geofencing

B. Mobile device management

C. Containerization

D. Remote wiping

The correct answer is C. Containerization.

Containerization is a technology that allows for the separation of work-related applications and data from personal applications and data on a mobile device. With containerization, a secure work container is created on the mobile device, which is isolated from the personal side of the device. This allows organizations to have control over the work-related data and applications while preserving the privacy and security of the personal data on the device.

In the given scenario, containerization would be the best option as it provides the organization with the ability to issue the mobile phones as permanent devices for work purposes only. It ensures that work-related activities are contained within the secure work container, while personal activities can be carried out separately on the personal side of the device. This allows the organization to maintain control over work-related data and applications without the need for reissuing phones daily.

Geofencing (option A) is a technology that creates virtual boundaries based on geographic locations. While it can be used to restrict device functionality or trigger specific actions based on location, it does not directly address the requirement of separating work and personal activities on the devices.

Mobile device management (option B) is a solution that provides centralized management and control over mobile devices, including provisioning, configuration, and security management. While it can help enforce policies and manage devices, it may not provide the level of separation required between work and personal activities.

Remote wiping (option D) is a feature that allows for the remote erasure of data on a lost or stolen device. While it can be useful for protecting sensitive information, it does not directly address the requirement of separating work and personal activities on the devices.

Therefore, in this scenario, the best technology to meet the organization's requirements of issuing phones as permanent work devices without personal use would be option C, containerization.

 

• ·        Which of the following control types is focused primarily on reducing risk before an incident occurs?

A. Preventive

B. Deterrent

C. Corrective

D. Detective

The correct answer is A. Preventive.

Preventive controls are implemented with the aim of reducing risks and preventing incidents from occurring in the first place. These controls are proactive in nature and focus on eliminating or minimizing vulnerabilities and threats. They are designed to deter potential attacks or unauthorized activities and reduce the likelihood of security incidents or breaches.

Examples of preventive controls include implementing strong access controls, conducting regular security awareness training, deploying firewalls and intrusion prevention systems (IPS), enforcing security policies and procedures, implementing encryption, and performing regular patch management.

Deterrent controls (option B) are intended to discourage potential attackers or unauthorized individuals from attempting to compromise security measures. They include measures such as security signage, security cameras, visible security personnel, and warning banners. While deterrent controls may contribute to risk reduction, they are not primarily focused on reducing risk before an incident occurs.

Corrective controls (option C) are implemented after an incident has occurred to restore systems, processes, and data to their normal state. They focus on remediation and recovery activities to mitigate the impact of the incident and prevent its recurrence. Corrective controls are reactive in nature and are not primarily focused on risk reduction before an incident occurs.

Detective controls (option D) are designed to identify and detect incidents or unauthorized activities that have already occurred. These controls include log monitoring, intrusion detection systems (IDS), security incident and event management (SIEM) solutions, and security audits. While detective controls play an important role in identifying incidents and mitigating their impact, they are not primarily focused on risk reduction before an incident occurs.

Therefore, the control type that is primarily focused on reducing risk before an incident occurs is option A, Preventive.

 

• ·        A systems administrator reports degraded performance on a virtual server. The administrator increases the virtual memory allocation, which improves conditions, but performance degrades again after a few days. The administrator runs an analysis tool and sees the following output: ==3214== timeAttend.exe analyzed ==3214== ERROR SUMMARY: ==3214== malloc/free: in use at exit: 4608 bytes in 18 blocks. ==3214== checked 82116 bytes ==3214== definitely lost: 4608 bytes in 18 blocks. The administrator terminates the timeAttend.exe, observes system performance over the next few days, and notices that the system performance does not degrade. Which of the following issues is MOST likely occurring?

A. DLL injection

B. API attack

C. Buffer overflow

D. Memory leak

The issue described in the scenario is consistent with a memory leak, which is option D.

A memory leak occurs when a program or process fails to release memory that is no longer needed, leading to the gradual consumption of system resources. In this case, the analysis tool output shows that there are bytes in use at exit and that there are blocks of memory that are definitely lost. This indicates that the timeAttend.exe program is not properly releasing the allocated memory, resulting in a gradual accumulation of memory usage over time.

By terminating the timeAttend.exe program and observing that the system performance does not degrade afterward, it suggests that the memory leak was caused by the specific program. When the program is no longer running, the memory it was using is released, and system performance returns to normal.

The other options mentioned are not consistent with the symptoms described:

DLL injection (option A) refers to a technique used by attackers to inject malicious code into a running process. It is not related to the symptoms of degraded performance and memory consumption described in the scenario.

API attack (option B) refers to exploiting vulnerabilities or misusing APIs (Application Programming Interfaces) to gain unauthorized access or perform malicious actions. It is not directly related to the symptoms of degraded performance and memory consumption described in the scenario.

Buffer overflow (option C) occurs when a program writes data beyond the boundaries of a buffer, leading to memory corruption and potentially allowing for unauthorized code execution. While buffer overflow vulnerabilities can cause memory-related issues, the symptoms described in the scenario are more consistent with a memory leak rather than a buffer overflow.

Therefore, the MOST likely issue occurring in this scenario is a memory leak (option D).

 

• ·        An administrator is experiencing issues when trying to upload a support file to a vendor. A pop-up message reveals that a payment card number was found in the file, and the file upload was blocked. Which of the following controls is most likely causing this issue and should be checked FIRST?

A. DLP

B. Firewall rule

C. Content filter

D. MDM

E. Application allow list

The control that is most likely causing the issue described in the scenario is a Data Loss Prevention (DLP) control, which is option A.

Data Loss Prevention (DLP) is a security control that helps prevent sensitive data from being leaked, intentionally or unintentionally, from an organization's network. DLP solutions typically monitor data in transit and at rest, and they enforce policies to prevent unauthorized or inappropriate data transfers.

In this case, the administrator is trying to upload a support file to a vendor, but the upload is blocked due to the detection of a payment card number in the file. This indicates that the DLP control is in place and functioning, as it has recognized the presence of sensitive information (payment card number) and prevented the file upload to protect against potential data leakage.

To resolve the issue, the administrator should check the DLP policies and rules to ensure they are configured correctly and aligned with the organization's requirements. It may be necessary to modify the DLP rules or seek an exemption if the upload of the support file is necessary and appropriate in this context.

The other options mentioned are less likely to be causing the issue:

Firewall rules (option B) primarily control network traffic based on predetermined policies and may block certain connections or protocols. However, they are less likely to specifically detect payment card numbers in a file and block the upload.

Content filters (option C) are typically used to restrict or allow access to certain types of content based on predefined criteria. While they can be configured to block specific types of files or content, they are not specifically designed for identifying payment card numbers in files.

Mobile Device Management (MDM) (option D) is a control used to manage and secure mobile devices in an organization. It is less likely to be directly involved in blocking file uploads and detecting payment card numbers.

Application allow lists (option E) typically control which applications are allowed to run on a system, but they are less likely to be responsible for detecting payment card numbers in files and blocking the upload.

Therefore, the DLP control (option A) is the most likely one causing the issue, and the administrator should check the DLP policies and rules first to address the situation.

 

• ·        Which of the following risk management strategies would an organization use to maintain a legacy system with known risks for operational purposes?

A. Acceptance

B. Transference

C. Avoidance

D. Mitigation

The risk management strategy that an organization would use to maintain a legacy system with known risks for operational purposes is option A: Acceptance.

Acceptance is a risk management strategy where an organization acknowledges and accepts the risks associated with a particular system, process, or activity. This strategy is typically chosen when the costs or efforts required to mitigate or eliminate the risks are deemed to be disproportionate to the potential impact or when there are no viable alternatives available.

In the case of a legacy system with known risks, the organization may decide to continue using the system despite its vulnerabilities or weaknesses because it is still providing value or fulfilling a specific operational need. By accepting the risks associated with the legacy system, the organization recognizes that there is a potential for incidents or issues to arise but is willing to manage and mitigate them as much as possible within reasonable limits.

It's important to note that while acceptance is a valid strategy for maintaining a legacy system, organizations should still implement appropriate controls and measures to minimize the risks and protect the system and its data to the extent feasible. This may include regular monitoring, applying patches and updates whenever available, implementing compensating controls, and having incident response plans in place to address any security incidents that may occur.

Transference (option B) involves transferring the risk to another party, such as through insurance or outsourcing. Avoidance (option C) means eliminating or avoiding the risk altogether by not engaging in the activity or using the system. Mitigation (option D) refers to reducing the risk through various controls and measures. While these strategies may be applicable in other situations, they are less suitable for maintaining a legacy system with known risks for operational purposes, where acceptance is the preferred approach.

 

• ·        Which of the following is the BEST action to foster a consistent and auditable incident response process?

A. Incent new hires to constantly update the document with external knowledge.

B. Publish the document in a central repository that is easily accessible to the organization.

C. Restrict eligibility to comment on the process to subject matter experts of each IT silo.

D. Rotate CIRT members to foster a shared responsibility model in the organization.

The BEST action to foster a consistent and auditable incident response process is option B: Publish the document in a central repository that is easily accessible to the organization.

Publishing the incident response process document in a central repository that is easily accessible to the organization has several benefits. It ensures that all stakeholders have access to the most up-to-date version of the document, promoting consistency in how incidents are handled. It also facilitates auditing and compliance efforts since the document is readily available for review by internal and external parties.

By making the document easily accessible, organizations can encourage employees to familiarize themselves with the incident response process and follow it consistently. This helps to establish a common understanding of the procedures and expectations during incident response.

Options A, C, and D do not directly address the goal of fostering a consistent and auditable incident response process as effectively as option B. Incentivizing new hires to update the document with external knowledge (option A) may encourage knowledge sharing but does not guarantee consistency or audibility of the process. Restricting eligibility to comment on the process to subject matter experts of each IT silo (option C) may lead to siloed knowledge and limited collaboration. Rotating CIRT members (option D) can promote shared responsibility but does not directly address the need for a documented and accessible process.

Therefore, option B, publishing the document in a central repository, is the most appropriate action to foster a consistent and auditable incident response process.

 

• ·        During a recent penetration test, the tester discovers large amounts of data were exfiltrated over the course of 12 months via the internet. The penetration tester stops the test to inform the client of the findings. Which of the following should be the client's NEXT step to mitigate the issue?

A. Conduct a full vulnerability scan to identify possible vulnerabilities.

B. Perform containment on the critical servers and resources.

C. Review the firewall and identify the source of the active connection.

D. Disconnect the entire infrastructure from the internet.

In the scenario described, where large amounts of data have been exfiltrated over the course of 12 months, the client's NEXT step to mitigate the issue should be option B: Perform containment on the critical servers and resources.

Performing containment involves isolating and securing the affected servers and resources to prevent further data exfiltration and mitigate the ongoing threat. This step is crucial to prevent any additional unauthorized access or data breaches while the incident is being investigated and remediated.

While conducting a full vulnerability scan (option A) is an important step to identify potential vulnerabilities in the infrastructure, it should be performed after containment to ensure that the environment is secure and that the scan does not inadvertently expose any vulnerabilities to attackers.

Reviewing the firewall and identifying the source of the active connection (option C) is an important investigation step, but it should be done as part of the incident response process after containment. It helps to understand the source and nature of the attack but does not directly mitigate the ongoing data exfiltration.

Disconnecting the entire infrastructure from the internet (option D) may be a drastic measure in response to a serious incident, but it should be considered carefully. It can help prevent further data exfiltration and limit the attacker's access, but it can also impact business operations. This step should be taken in coordination with the incident response team and with consideration of the potential impact on the organization's services.

Therefore, the client's NEXT step to mitigate the issue should be to perform containment on the critical servers and resources.

 

• ·        A security analyst is designing the appropriate controls to limit unauthorized access to a physical site. The analyst has a directive to utilize the lowest possible budget. Which of the following would BEST meet the requirements?

A. Preventive controls

B. Compensating controls

C. Deterrent controls

D. Detective controls

In the given scenario, where the security analyst has a directive to utilize the lowest possible budget, the BEST option to meet the requirements would be C. Deterrent controls.

Deterrent controls aim to discourage unauthorized access by creating a perception of risk or consequences for potential intruders. These controls are typically less costly compared to other types of controls and can effectively discourage unauthorized individuals from attempting to access the physical site.

Examples of deterrent controls include visible signage indicating the presence of security measures, security cameras, well-lit areas, access control mechanisms such as fences or gates, and security patrols. These controls can create a deterrent effect by making it clear that the site is being monitored and that unauthorized access is not tolerated.

Preventive controls (option A) focus on preventing unauthorized access by implementing physical barriers and access control mechanisms. Compensating controls (option B) are alternative controls that are implemented when primary controls are not feasible or cost-effective. Detective controls (option D) are aimed at detecting and identifying security incidents after they have occurred.

While preventive, compensating, and detective controls have their importance in a comprehensive security strategy, for the given scenario where budget constraints are a factor, opting for deterrent controls would be the most suitable choice.

 

• ·        A company is looking to migrate some servers to the cloud to minimize its technology footprint. The company has 100 databases that are on premises. Which of the following solutions will require the LEAST management and support from the company?

A. SaaS

B. IaaS

C. PaaS

D. SDN

Of the options provided, the solution that would require the LEAST management and support from the company is A. SaaS (Software as a Service).

SaaS is a cloud computing model in which a third-party provider hosts and manages software applications that are delivered to customers over the internet. With SaaS, the company does not need to worry about managing the underlying infrastructure or the software itself. The provider takes care of all the maintenance, updates, and support for the software.

In the context of the given scenario, if the company chooses a SaaS solution for its databases, it would not have to manage the servers, operating systems, or database software. The third-party provider would handle all the management and support tasks, allowing the company to focus on utilizing the software and its data rather than the underlying infrastructure.

In contrast, options B. IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) and C. PaaS (Platform as a Service) would require the company to manage and support the underlying infrastructure or platform to some extent. With IaaS, the company would be responsible for managing the virtual machines, operating systems, and database software. With PaaS, the company would have less management responsibility as the provider would manage the underlying infrastructure and operating system, but the company would still need to manage and configure the database software.

Option D. SDN (Software-Defined Networking) is a technology that virtualizes network infrastructure, allowing for more flexible and automated management of network resources. While SDN can help simplify network management, it is not directly related to the management of databases and would not address the company's specific need for database migration.

Therefore, in terms of minimizing management and support efforts, choosing a SaaS solution for the databases would be the most suitable option for the company.

 

• ·        Which of the following employee roles is responsible for protecting an organization's collected personal information?

A. CTO

B. DPO

C. CEO

D. DBA

The employee role responsible for protecting an organization's collected personal information is the B. DPO (Data Protection Officer).

The Data Protection Officer is a role established under the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) and is responsible for overseeing the organization's data protection strategy and ensuring compliance with data protection laws and regulations. The DPO's main responsibility is to protect the personal information collected by the organization and to ensure that it is processed and handled in accordance with applicable privacy laws.

The CTO (Chief Technology Officer) is responsible for overseeing the organization's technology and IT infrastructure but may not have direct responsibility for protecting personal information unless specifically assigned that role.

The CEO (Chief Executive Officer) is the top executive in the organization and has overall responsibility for the company's operations and strategic direction. While the CEO has a general responsibility to ensure the organization operates within legal and ethical boundaries, the specific responsibility for protecting personal information is typically delegated to other roles such as the DPO.

The DBA (Database Administrator) is responsible for managing and maintaining databases, including database design, performance optimization, and security. While DBAs play a crucial role in implementing and maintaining security controls within databases, they are not typically responsible for protecting personal information organization-wide. That responsibility falls to the DPO and other roles dedicated to privacy and data protection.

Therefore, the DPO is the employee role primarily responsible for protecting an organization's collected personal information.

 

• ·        Against the recommendation of the IT security analyst, a company set all user passwords on a server as `P@55w0rD`. Upon review of the /etc/passwd file, an attacker found the following: alice:a8df3b6c4fd75f0617431fd248f35191df8d237f bob:2d250c5b2976b03d757f324ebd59340df96aa05e chris:ea981ec3285421d014108089f3f3f997ce0f4150

Which of the following BEST explains why the encrypted passwords do not match?

A. Perfect forward secrecy

B. Key stretching

C. Salting

D. Hashing

The reason why the encrypted passwords do not match is most likely due to option C: Salting.

Salting is a technique used in password hashing to add an additional random value (salt) to each user's password before it is hashed. The purpose of salting is to prevent attackers from using precomputed tables (rainbow tables) or dictionary attacks to quickly determine the original passwords from their hashed values.

In the given scenario, each user's password has been encrypted and stored as a hashed value in the /etc/passwd file. However, the encrypted passwords do not match because they have been hashed with different salts. The salt value is unique for each user, so even if two users have the same password, their hashed values will be different due to the use of different salts.

This practice of salting passwords enhances the security of the password storage system by making it significantly more difficult for attackers to crack the passwords, even if they gain access to the hashed values.

 

·        After gaining access to a dual-homed (i.e., wired and wireless) multifunction device by exploiting a vulnerability in the device's firmware, a penetration tester then gains shell access on another networked asset. This technique is an example of:

A. privilege escalation.

B. footprinting.

C. persistence.

D. pivoting.

The technique described in the scenario is an example of D. pivoting.

Pivoting refers to the act of using a compromised system or network as a launching point to gain access to other systems or networks within the target environment. In this case, the penetration tester initially gained access to the multifunction device by exploiting a vulnerability in its firmware. Once inside the device, the tester then used it as a pivot to gain shell access on another networked asset.

By leveraging the compromised multifunction device as a pivot, the penetration tester was able to extend their reach and gain access to additional systems or networks that may have been otherwise inaccessible from their original point of entry. Pivoting is a common technique used by attackers and penetration testers to move laterally and escalate their level of control within a target environment.

Top of Form

 

• ·        Which of the following should be monitored by threat intelligence researchers who search for leaked credentials?

A. Common Weakness Enumeration

B. OSINT

C. Dark web

D. Vulnerability databases

C. Dark web

Threat intelligence researchers who search for leaked credentials should monitor the dark web. The dark web is a part of the internet that is not indexed by traditional search engines and is often associated with illegal activities. It is a common marketplace for buying and selling stolen data, including compromised credentials. By monitoring the dark web, threat intelligence researchers can identify instances where credentials have been leaked or are being actively traded or sold.

Common Weakness Enumeration (A) is a community-driven list of software and hardware weaknesses, vulnerabilities, and exposures. It is not specifically focused on monitoring leaked credentials.

OSINT (B), which stands for Open-Source Intelligence, refers to the collection and analysis of publicly available information from a variety of sources. While OSINT can be a valuable source of information for threat intelligence researchers, it does not specifically focus on leaked credentials.

Vulnerability databases (D) contain information about known software vulnerabilities. While monitoring vulnerability databases can be important for staying informed about security weaknesses, it is not the primary source for finding leaked credentials.

 

• ·        A security analyst needs to be able to search and correlate logs from multiple sources in a single tool. Which of the following would BEST allow a security analyst to have this ability?

A. SOAR

B. SIEM

C. Log collectors

D. Network-attached storage

B. SIEM (Security Information and Event Management)

A SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) tool is designed to collect, analyze, and correlate logs and events from various sources in a centralized platform. It provides the ability to search and correlate logs from multiple sources, enabling security analysts to detect and investigate security incidents more effectively.

SIEM platforms typically integrate with different log sources such as firewalls, intrusion detection systems, servers, endpoints, and other network devices. They aggregate log data, apply correlation rules, and generate alerts or reports based on predefined patterns or abnormal behavior.

While log collectors (C) may collect logs from various sources, they typically focus on forwarding or centralizing logs and may not provide advanced correlation and analysis capabilities.

SOAR (A) stands for Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response. It is a platform that combines incident response, workflow automation, and security orchestration capabilities. While SOAR platforms can integrate with SIEMs and other tools to enhance incident response processes, they may not provide the same level of log search and correlation functionality as a dedicated SIEM.

Network-attached storage (D) refers to a storage device connected to a network that provides file-level access to multiple clients. While it can store logs, it does not provide the same level of log analysis and correlation capabilities as a SIEM.

• ·        A security analyst is investigating suspicious traffic on the web server located at IP address 10.10.1.1. A search of the WAF logs reveals the following output:

Which of the following is MOST likely occurring?

• A. XSS attack
• B. SQLi attack
• C. Replay attack
• D. XSRF attack

 

Based on the provided information from the WAF logs, the attack that is most likely occurring is:

B. SQLi attack (SQL injection)

In the URLs mentioned in the logs (/web/cgi-bin/contact?category=custname--and/web/cgi-bin/contact?category=custname+OR+1=1--), the presence of characters such as '--andOR 1=1--` suggests an attempt to exploit a SQL injection vulnerability.

SQL injection is a type of attack where an attacker injects malicious SQL code into a web application's database query, allowing them to manipulate or extract data from the database. The '-- at the end of the first URL and OR 1=1-- in the second URL are common techniques used to manipulate SQL queries and bypass authentication or extract sensitive information.

The fact that the action taken in the WAF logs is "permit and log" indicates that the WAF is allowing the requests to pass through, potentially indicating a successful SQL injection attack.

It is important to further investigate and remediate this issue by applying proper input validation, parameterized queries, and other security measures to prevent SQL injection attacks.

 

• ·        Which of the following components can be used to consolidate and forward inbound internet traffic to multiple cloud environments though a single firewall?

A. Transit gateway

B. Cloud hot site

C. Edge computing

D. DNS sinkhole

The component that can be used to consolidate and forward inbound internet traffic to multiple cloud environments through a single firewall is:

A. Transit gateway

A transit gateway is a network transit hub that allows organizations to connect multiple virtual private clouds (VPCs) and on-premises networks together. It acts as a centralized point for routing and managing network traffic between different environments. With a transit gateway, inbound internet traffic can be directed through a single firewall, providing a centralized security control point for multiple cloud environments.

By routing traffic through a transit gateway, organizations can apply security policies, filtering rules, and other firewall features to protect the network traffic flowing between the internet and the various cloud environments.

Therefore, the transit gateway is the best component among the options provided to consolidate and forward inbound internet traffic to multiple cloud environments through a single firewall.

 

• ·        A DBA reports that several production server hard drives were wiped over the weekend. The DBA also reports that several Linux servers were unavailable due to system files being deleted unexpectedly. A security analyst verified that software was configured to delete data deliberately from those servers. No backdoors to any servers were found. Which of the following attacks was MOST likely used to cause the data loss?

A. Logic bomb

B. Ransomware

C. Fileless virus

D. Remote access Trojans

E. Rootkit

Based on the provided information, the attack that is MOST likely used to cause the data loss is:

A. Logic bomb

A logic bomb is a type of malicious code that is intentionally inserted into a system with the purpose of executing a destructive action at a specific trigger event or time. In this case, the deliberate deletion of data from the production server hard drives and the unexpected deletion of system files on the Linux servers align with the behavior of a logic bomb.

Unlike ransomware, which typically encrypts data and demands a ransom, or fileless viruses, which reside in memory and do not leave traces on disk, a logic bomb is specifically designed to trigger destructive actions like data deletion.

Therefore, based on the given information, the use of a logic bomb is the most likely explanation for the data loss experienced on the production servers and the deletion of system files on the Linux servers.

• ·        Digital signatures use asymmetric encryption. This means the message is encrypted with:

A. the sender's private key and decrypted with the sender's public key.

B. the sender's public key and decrypted with the sender's private key.

C. the sender's private key and decrypted with the recipient's public key.

D. the sender's public key and decrypted with the recipient's private key.

Digital signatures use asymmetric encryption where the message is encrypted with:

A. the sender's private key and decrypted with the sender's public key.

In the process of creating a digital signature, the sender uses their private key to encrypt a hash or a digest of the message. The resulting encrypted hash, along with the message itself, forms the digital signature. This signature can be decrypted using the sender's public key. By decrypting the signature and comparing it to a recalculated hash of the received message, the recipient can verify the integrity and authenticity of the message.

 

• ·        A security engineer was assigned to implement a solution to prevent attackers from gaining access by pretending to be authorized users. Which of the following technologies meets the requirement?

A. SSO

B. IDS

C. MFA

D. TPM

The technology that would best meet the requirement of preventing attackers from gaining access by pretending to be authorized users is:

C. MFA (Multi-Factor Authentication).

Multi-Factor Authentication adds an extra layer of security to the authentication process by requiring users to provide multiple pieces of evidence to verify their identity. This typically includes a combination of something the user knows (such as a password), something the user has (such as a hardware token or a mobile device), and/or something the user is (such as biometric data). By requiring multiple factors for authentication, MFA significantly reduces the risk of unauthorized access, even if an attacker manages to obtain or guess the user's password.

Top of Form

 

• ·        The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) has requested that a third-party vendor provide supporting documents that show proper controls are in place to protect customer data. Which of the following would be BEST for the third-party vendor to provide to the CISO?

A. GDPR compliance attestation

B. Cloud Security Alliance materials

C. SOC 2 Type 2 report

D. NIST RMF workbooks

The best document for the third-party vendor to provide to the CISO, demonstrating proper controls to protect customer data, would be:

C. SOC 2 Type 2 report.

SOC 2 (System and Organization Controls 2) is a widely recognized auditing standard that focuses on security, availability, processing integrity, confidentiality, and privacy of customer data. A SOC 2 Type 2 report provides independent validation of an organization's controls and demonstrates that the controls have been operating effectively over a specified period. It provides assurance to the CISO that the third-party vendor has implemented and maintained appropriate controls to protect customer data.

 

• ·        Which of the following is assured when a user signs an email using a private key?

A. Non-repudiation

B. Confidentiality

C. Availability

D. Authentication

The assurance provided when a user signs an email using a private key is:

A. Non-repudiation.

Non-repudiation ensures that the sender of a message cannot later deny having sent it. When a user signs an email using a private key, the digital signature attached to the email provides proof of the sender's identity and integrity of the message. It prevents the sender from denying their involvement in sending the email and provides assurance of the message's authenticity.

 

• ·        A systems administrator is troubleshooting a server's connection to an internal web server. The administrator needs to determine the correct ports to use. Which of the following tools BEST shows which ports on the web server are in a listening state?

A. ipconfig

B. ssh

C. ping

D. netstat

The tool that BEST shows which ports on the web server are in a listening state is:

D. netstat.

Netstat (network statistics) is a command-line tool that displays network connections, routing tables, and network interface statistics. By using the appropriate command and parameters, such as "netstat -a" or "netstat -an", the administrator can view a list of all active network connections, including the local address, foreign address, and the state of each connection. This information will allow the administrator to identify the ports on the web server that are in a listening state.

 

• ·        Which of the following BEST reduces the security risks introduced when running systems that have expired vendor support and lack an immediate replacement?

A. Implement proper network access restrictions.

B. Initiate a bug bounty program.

C. Classify the system as shadow IT.

D. Increase the frequency of vulnerability scans.

The BEST option to reduce the security risks introduced by running systems that have expired vendor support and lack an immediate replacement is:

A. Implement proper network access restrictions.

Implementing proper network access restrictions helps mitigate the security risks associated with unsupported systems. By controlling the network traffic and limiting access to the system, the potential attack surface is reduced, making it more difficult for unauthorized actors to exploit vulnerabilities in the unsupported system. This measure can help protect the system and prevent unauthorized access or malicious activities while a suitable replacement or alternative solution is identified and implemented.

 

• ·        Due to unexpected circumstances, an IT company must vacate its main office, forcing all operations to alternate, off-site locations. Which of the following will the company MOST likely reference for guidance during this change?

A. The business continuity plan

B. The retention policy

C. The disaster recovery plan

D. The incident response plan

The IT company would MOST likely reference the:

A. The business continuity plan.

During unexpected circumstances that require the company to vacate its main office and relocate operations to alternate off-site locations, the business continuity plan would provide guidance and procedures for maintaining essential operations and services. It outlines strategies to ensure that critical functions can continue despite the disruption. This plan addresses not only the immediate response to the situation but also the long-term recovery and restoration of normal operations. It includes details on communication, resource allocation, alternate workspace arrangements, and other necessary actions to sustain business activities during the relocation period.

 

• ·        While reviewing an alert that shows a malicious request on one web application, a cybersecurity analyst is alerted to a subsequent token reuse moments later on a different service using the same single sign-on method. Which of the following would BEST detect a malicious actor?

A. Utilizing SIEM correlation engines

B. Deploying Netflow at the network border

C. Disabling session tokens for all sites

D. Deploying a WAF for the web server

A. Utilizing SIEM correlation engines

By utilizing SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) correlation engines, the cybersecurity analyst can monitor and analyze security events from various sources, including the web applications and services involved in the incident. SIEM tools can collect and correlate logs and events from multiple systems, applications, and network devices, allowing the analyst to identify patterns and detect suspicious activities across different services.

In this case, the SIEM correlation engine can help detect the malicious actor by linking the initial alert of the malicious request on the first web application with the subsequent token reuse on a different service. By correlating these events and identifying the relationship between them, the analyst can flag the activity as potentially malicious and take appropriate action.

 

• ·        Two organizations plan to collaborate on the evaluation of new SIEM solutions for their respective companies. A combined effort from both organizations' SOC teams would speed up the effort. Which of the following can be written to document this agreement?

A. MOU

B. ISA

C. SLA

D. NDA

A. MOU (Memorandum of Understanding)

A Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) can be written to document the agreement between the two organizations for collaborating on the evaluation of new SIEM solutions. An MOU is a non-binding agreement that outlines the intentions and understanding between parties involved in a cooperative effort. It establishes the framework and general terms of the collaboration, including the roles and responsibilities of each organization's SOC teams, the objectives of the evaluation, and any other relevant details regarding the joint effort.

While an MOU is typically not legally binding, it serves as a written record of the understanding and commitment between the organizations and can help ensure that both parties are aligned and working towards the same goal during the evaluation process.

 

• ·        The Chief Information Security Officer wants to prevent exfiltration of sensitive information from employee cell phones when using public USB power charging stations. Which of the following would be the BEST solution to implement?

A. DLP

B. USB data blocker

C. USB OTG

D. Disabling USB ports

B. USB data blocker

The BEST solution to prevent exfiltration of sensitive information from employee cell phones when using public USB power charging stations is to use a USB data blocker. A USB data blocker, also known as a USB condom, is a small device that prevents data transfer when a USB cable is connected. It blocks the data pins in the USB port while allowing the power pins to connect, thus only allowing charging and preventing any data exchange between the device and the charging station.

By using a USB data blocker, employees can safely connect their devices to public USB charging stations without the risk of data theft or malware infection. It provides an extra layer of security by ensuring that no data can be transferred through the USB connection, mitigating the risk of unauthorized access or data exfiltration.

 

• ·        The board of directors at a company contracted with an insurance firm to limit the organization's liability. Which of the following risk management practices does this BEST describe?

A. Transference

B. Avoidance

C. Mitigation

D. Acknowledgement

A. Transference

Contracting with an insurance firm to limit the organization's liability is an example of risk transference. Risk transference is a risk management practice where an organization transfers the financial impact of a risk to another party, typically through insurance or contracts. In this case, by purchasing insurance, the company is transferring the financial responsibility for potential losses or damages to the insurance firm. This helps the company limit its liability and mitigate the financial consequences of potential risks.

 

• ·        Which of the following is a risk that is specifically associated with hosting applications in the public cloud?

A. Unsecured root accounts

B. Zero-day

C. Shared tenancy

D. Insider threat

C. Shared tenancy

Hosting applications in the public cloud introduces the risk of shared tenancy. In a public cloud environment, multiple customers or organizations share the same underlying physical infrastructure and resources provided by the cloud service provider. This shared tenancy model can potentially expose organizations to various security risks. For example, there is a risk that sensitive data or information from one organization could be accessed or compromised by another organization if proper isolation controls are not in place. The shared nature of the public cloud infrastructure requires organizations to implement strong security measures and controls to mitigate the risks associated with shared tenancy.

 

• ·        DDoS attacks are causing an overload on the cluster of cloud servers. A security architect is researching alternatives to make the cloud environment respond to load fluctuation in a cost-effective way. Which of the following options BEST fulfills the architect's requirements?

A. An orchestration solution that can adjust scalability of cloud assets

B. Use of multipath by adding more connections to cloud storage

C. Cloud assets replicated on geographically distributed regions

D. An on-site backup that is displayed and only used when the load increases

A. An orchestration solution that can adjust scalability of cloud assets

To address the DDoS attacks and manage load fluctuation in a cost-effective way, the security architect should consider an orchestration solution that can adjust the scalability of cloud assets. By using an orchestration solution, the cloud environment can dynamically scale up or down the number of servers or resources based on the current demand. This allows the environment to effectively handle increased traffic during DDoS attacks and adjust capacity as needed, while optimizing costs by scaling down during periods of lower demand.

Options B, C, and D are not directly related to managing load fluctuation or addressing DDoS attacks. Multipath and geographically distributed assets may offer benefits in terms of redundancy and availability, but they do not specifically address the overload caused by DDoS attacks. An on-site backup is not an efficient solution for handling increased load in a cloud environment, as it lacks the scalability and flexibility provided by cloud resources.

 

• ·        Which of the following documents provides expectations at a technical level for quality, availability, and responsibilities?

A. EOL

B. SLA

C. MOU

D. EOSL

B. SLA (Service Level Agreement)

An SLA (Service Level Agreement) is a document that defines the expectations, responsibilities, and commitments between a service provider and its customer. It outlines the agreed-upon levels of service quality, availability, and performance that the provider will deliver, as well as the customer's responsibilities and entitlements. The SLA sets the technical and operational standards that the service provider must meet and provides a framework for measuring and enforcing the agreed-upon service levels. It serves as a contractual agreement that ensures both parties are aligned on expectations and establishes a basis for addressing any issues or disputes that may arise.

 

• ·        Which of the following is an example of transference of risk?

A. Purchasing insurance

B. Patching vulnerable servers

C. Retiring outdated applications

D. Application owner risk sign-off

A. Purchasing insurance

Transference of risk involves shifting the responsibility for managing a risk from one party to another. In the case of purchasing insurance, an organization transfers the financial risk associated with potential losses to an insurance provider. By paying premiums, the organization transfers the risk of certain events, such as property damage, liability claims, or data breaches, to the insurance company. In the event of an incident, the insurance provider assumes the financial burden, up to the coverage limits specified in the policy. This allows the organization to mitigate the potential impact of the risk by transferring it to the insurance provider.

 

• ·        An employee received a word processing file that was delivered as an email attachment. The subject line and email content enticed the employee to open the attachment. Which of the following attack vectors BEST matches this malware?

A. Embedded Python code

B. Macro-enabled file

C. Bash scripting

D. Credential-harvesting website

B. Macro-enabled file

The scenario describes a common attack vector known as a macro-enabled file. In this case, the email attachment is a word processing file (such as a Microsoft Word document) that contains malicious macros. Macros are scripts or code snippets that can be embedded within these files and executed when the file is opened. The subject line and email content are designed to entice the employee to open the attachment, triggering the execution of the malicious macros. These macros can then perform various malicious actions, such as downloading and executing malware, stealing information, or exploiting vulnerabilities. It is important to exercise caution when opening attachments, especially from unknown or suspicious sources, and to keep software and security systems up to date to mitigate the risks associated with such attack vectors.

 

• ·        A security proposal was set up to track requests for remote access by creating a baseline of the users' common sign-in properties. When a baseline deviation is detected, an MFA challenge will be triggered. Which of the following should be configured in order to deploy the proposal?

A. Context-aware authentication

B. Simultaneous authentication of equals

C. Extensive authentication protocol

D. Agentless network access control

A. Context-aware authentication

The proposed solution involves tracking requests for remote access and creating a baseline of the users' common sign-in properties. When a baseline deviation is detected, an MFA challenge will be triggered. This approach aligns with the concept of context-aware authentication. Context-aware authentication takes into consideration various factors, such as user behavior, location, device, and time of access, to dynamically assess the risk and apply appropriate authentication measures.

By establishing a baseline of users' common sign-in properties, the system can learn and recognize normal behavior patterns. When a deviation from the baseline occurs, indicating a potential security risk, an MFA challenge can be triggered to add an additional layer of authentication.

Simultaneous authentication of equals, extensive authentication protocol, and agentless network access control are not directly relevant to the scenario described. Simultaneous authentication of equals refers to a specific authentication protocol used in certain security systems. Extensive authentication protocol and agentless network access control are not mentioned in the context of the proposed solution.

Therefore, the most appropriate choice for deploying the proposal is A. Context-aware authentication.

 

• ·        Which of the following secure coding techniques makes compromised code more difficult for hackers to use?

A. Obfuscation

B. Normalization

C. Execution

D. Reuse

A. Obfuscation

Obfuscation is a secure coding technique that makes compromised code more difficult for hackers to understand and use. It involves transforming the code in a way that makes it hard to read and comprehend without affecting its functionality. Obfuscated code often includes techniques such as renaming variables and functions, adding extra code, removing comments and whitespace, and other transformations that make the code harder to analyze and reverse engineer.

By obfuscating the code, it becomes more challenging for attackers to extract sensitive information, discover vulnerabilities, or modify the code to their advantage. It adds an additional layer of complexity and can deter casual attackers or those relying on automated tools from easily understanding the code's logic.

Normalization, execution, and reuse are not specifically related to making compromised code more difficult for hackers to use. Normalization refers to the process of organizing and standardizing data, execution refers to running code, and reuse refers to utilizing existing code components. While these techniques may have their own benefits in software development, they are not directly focused on making compromised code more difficult to exploit.

 

• ·        As part of a security compliance assessment, an auditor performs automated vulnerability scans. In addition, which of the following should the auditor do to complete the assessment?

A. User behavior analysis

B. Packet captures

C. Configuration reviews

D. Log analysis

C. Configuration reviews

While automated vulnerability scans are useful for identifying known vulnerabilities in systems and applications, they do not provide a comprehensive assessment of security compliance. To complete the assessment, the auditor should also perform configuration reviews.

Configuration reviews involve examining the system and application configurations to ensure they align with security best practices, industry standards, and organizational policies. This process typically involves reviewing settings related to user access controls, password policies, network configurations, encryption settings, logging and monitoring configurations, and other security-relevant parameters.

By conducting configuration reviews, the auditor can identify potential misconfigurations or insecure settings that may introduce security risks. These reviews provide insights into whether the systems and applications are configured in a manner that complies with the organization's security requirements and industry standards.

User behavior analysis, packet captures, and log analysis are also valuable activities for assessing security, but they are not specifically mentioned in the context of completing a security compliance assessment. These activities may be part of a more comprehensive security assessment, but configuration reviews are directly related to evaluating compliance with security standards and policies.